ActualTest.C _formatted

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1 ActualTest.C _formatted Number: C Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: These are the most accurate study questions. Just focus on these and sit in your exam. Modified few questions, fixed few spelling mistakes and typos. Nicely written Questions with many corrections inside. 100% valid, I didn't fail any question, all of them are in this VCE. All the questions are new one.there is no repetition of any question.

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 Without explicitly setting DBSPACETEMP and TEMPTABLE_NOLOG, where will temporary tables be created by default? (Choose three.) A. The root dbspace. B. The users' home directory. C. The $INFORMIXDIR/tmp directory. D. The dbspace in which the active database was created. E. The /tmp directory or PSORT_DBTEMP. DE /Reference: answer is perfected. QUESTION 2 What two onconfig parameters will help improve performance of new network connections? (Choose two.) A. NETTYPE B. VPCLASS C. NS_CACHE D. FET_BUF_SIZE E. NUMFDSERVERS E /Reference: QUESTION 3 Given the following SQL command where the DBSPACETEMP onconfig and environment variables are set to valid dbspaces: create temp table mytemp (columns) with no log; in what order will the instance evaluate where to place this table? A. DBSPACETEMP environment variable, root dbspace, dbspace where the database was created, DBSPACETEMP onconfig parameter. B. DBSPACETEMP environment variable, DBSPACETEMP onconfig parameter, dbspace where the database was created, root dbspace. C. DBSPACETEMP onconfig parameter variable, DBSPACETEMP environment variable, root dbspace, dbspace where the database was created. D. DBSPACETEMP onconfig parameter variable, root dbspace, dbspace where the database was created, DBSPACETEMP environment variable. /Reference: QUESTION 4 What ONCONFIG parameter can be tuned to increase memory for hash joins?

3 A. RESIDENT B. EXTSHMADD C. VP_MEMORY_CACHE_KB D. DS_NONPDQ_QUERY_MEM /Reference: QUESTION 5 Which two options can be used to monitor PDQ resources? (Choose two.) A. onstat -l. B. onstat -p. C. onstat -D. D. onstat -g ath. E. SET EXPLAIN output. E /Reference: QUESTION 6 Which statement about updating statistics is NOT true? A. UPDATE STATISTICS HIGH scans the entire table. B. Data distributions are updated every time UPDATE STATISTICS LOW is executed. C. UPDATE STATISTICS operations will benefit by tuning the DBUPSPACE environment variable. D. An UPDATE STATISTICS LOW command will ignore tables and indexes with modifications less than STATCHANGE. /Reference: QUESTION 7 Most, but not all Virtual Processors, can be modified via the onmode -p command. Which CANNOT be modified? A. ADM B. BTS

4 C. CPU D. CSM /Reference: QUESTION 8 Which of the following gives a good initial estimate for the physical log size? A. 110% of rootdbs. B. 110% the default buffer pool. C. 110% of the logical log space. D. 110% of combined buffer pool. /Reference: QUESTION 9 Which two onconfig parameters can be set to backup/restore to/from a cloud storage location? (Choose two.) A. TAPEDEV B. TAPEBLK C. LTAPEBLK D. LTAPEDEV E. BAR_BSALIB_PATH D /Reference: QUESTION 10 Which two objects are NOT included in a backup? (Choose two.) A. Tables B. Indexes C. External tables D. Simple blob data stored in simple blobspaces E. Basic text search indexes stored in external dbspaces E /Reference: QUESTION 11

5 What is used during Fast Recovery to return pages to the original state? A. Logical Log B. Physical Log C. External Tables D. Temporary DBSpaces /Reference: QUESTION 12 To maximize the performance of your OnBar backup and recovery operations, what should you do? A. Use a commercial storage manager. B. Use the bundled Informix Storage Manager (ISM). C. Use a combination of disk-based and tape-based backup devices. D. Use separate storage devices for instance spaces and logical logs. /Reference: QUESTION 13 Which option would be used with "cdr define replicate" to create a shadow replicate? A. --backup B. --mirrors C. --shadow D. --synchronize /Reference: QUESTION 14 How many paging files are required for SD secondary instances? A. There should always be two. B. It depends on how many CPU VPs you have. C. It depends on how many data dbspaces you have. D. It depends on how many temporary dbspaces you have. /Reference: answer is valid and updated.

6 QUESTION 15 What statement about users accessing a Flexible Grid is true? A. Every user can execute commands on the Flexible Grid. B. Only user informix can execute commands on a Flexible Grid. C. Users have to be authorized to execute Flexible Grid commands. D. Commands can only be executed from the node on which the Flexible Grid was created. /Reference: : QUESTION 16 A Connection Manager is started with the following Service Level Agreement: SLA report=(sds+report_server) Where will a connection to the report SLA be redirected? A. Any available SDS (Shared Disk Secondary) server, then report_server. B. Report_server, then any available SDS server. C. Report_server, then the SDS server with most available resources. D. The server with the most available resources in the SLA list, including all SDS servers and report_server. /Reference: : QUESTION 17 Which of the following is NOT a step in setting up HDR for the first time? A. Take a level 0 backup of the primary. B. Use oninit -v to bring up the secondary. C. Execute a physical restore on the secondary. D. Use onmode -d to specify the secondary instance name. /Reference: : QUESTION 18 Assuming you have a table with a replicate defined. A Flexible Grid procedure is executed changing data in that table. What statement about replication of the changes is true? A. The changes cannot be replicated. B. The changes are replicated by default. C. You have to call ifx_set_erstate( ) to replicate changes. D. Only changes to primary key columns can be replicated.

7 /Reference: : QUESTION 19 Given the following: A. Update three rows. B. Update one row and insert two rows. C. Update two rows and insert one row. D. Return a error - Cannot update or delete a row twice in a MERGE statement. /Reference: : QUESTION 20 Given the following SQL statement: What does the merge statement do? A. For each row that matches the condition col1 = c1, it inserts a new row in tab1 with the sum of corresponding c2 and col2 column values. B. For the rows that match the condition col1 = c1, it adds the the c2 column value to the col2 column value and updates corresponding rows in tab1. C. For the rows that match the condition, col1 = c1, it adds the col2 column value to the c2 column value and updates corresponding rows in tab2. D. Deletes rows from tab2 and updates rows in tab1 that match the condition col1 = c1 by adding the c2

8 column value to the col2 column value of corresponding rows in tab1. /Reference: : QUESTION 21 Which list fragmentation statement is true? A. It cannot be used for indexes. B. It allows overlapping fragments. C. It can only be used for numeric columns. D. It allows a fragment to be defined as a remainder. /Reference: : QUESTION 22 Fragment level statistics are NOT supported with which fragmentation strategy? A. List fragmentation. B. Interval fragmentation. C. Expression fragmentation. D. Round-robin fragmentation. /Reference: : QUESTION 23 Given the SQL explain output of this star join query, which is the fact table?

9 A. sales B. product C. region D. customer /Reference: : QUESTION 24 Which sbspaces statement is FALSE? A. Sbspaces may be recoverable. B. Sbspaces can be of varying page size. C. Sbspaces may be part of round robin fragmentation. D. Sbspaces have read, write and seek properties similar to UNIX functions. /Reference: : QUESTION 25 Under which condition can table fragments NOT be eliminated during query processing? A. Tables with non-overlapping fragments and an equality query predicate.

10 B. Tables with round-robin distribution scheme and a range query predicate. C. Tables with non-overlapping fragments on a single column and a range query predicate. D. Tables with overlapping or non-contiguous fragments on a single column and an equality query predicate. /Reference: : QUESTION 26 When adding space to the storagepool, which correctly describes the type of storage which may be placed in the storagepool? A. Cooked file only. B. Raw devices only. C. Cooked files and Raw devices only. D. Cooked files, Raw devices and Directories. /Reference: : QUESTION 27 Which object can be defragmented? A. index B. external table C. temporary table D. system catalog table /Reference: : QUESTION 28 Which statement about Informix data compression is true? A. Compressing data on one Enterprise Replication (ER) node affects the data on the other ER nodes. B. I/O-bound tables, for example, those with bad cache hit ratios, are good candidates for compression. C. Compression operations can be executed on a HDR secondary, RS secondary, or SD secondary server. D. Compressing data on a primary instance will not compress data on the High-Availability Data Replication (HDR) secondary instance. /Reference: :

11 QUESTION 29 Which CANNOT be used to move compressed data from one database to another? A. dbload B. dbexport C. onunload D. High-Performance Loader /Reference: : QUESTION 30 Which storage space should be used to store columns defined as a BLOB or a CLOB? A. sbspace B. dbspace C. extspace D. blobspace /Reference: : QUESTION 31 What does the SP_WAITTIME variable control? A. The maximum time allowed for distributed stored procedures to complete. B. The maximum amount of wait time for a reply from an H/A cluster secondary. C. The maximum time a user session will wait for a space extension to complete. D. The maximum amount of wait time permitted before an automatic space allocation will begin. /Reference: : QUESTION 32 When executing the SQL Admin API "defragment table" and "table repack" commands on the customer table, what will happen to the table? (Choose two.) execute function sysadmin:task("defragment table","customer"); execute function sysadmin:task("table repack", "customer"); A. Fragments of a table will be combined.

12 B. Rows will be moved to the beginning of table. C. Given sufficient resources the number of extents in the table will be reduced. D. Free space at the end of the table will be released to the dbspace for other tables to use. E. The table will be locked preventing inserts from happening for the duration of the commands. C /Reference: : QUESTION 33 Which $ONCONFIG parameter triggers an automatic increase to a chunk or space based on remaining free space? A. SP_AUTOGROW B. SP_THRESHOLD C. SP_AUTOEXPAND D. SP_CHUNKEXTEND /Reference: : QUESTION 34 Which statement about automatic space management is true? A. Spaces cannot be extended manually. B. Only unmirrored spaces can be extended. C. Mirrored and unmirrored spaces can be extended. D. The time interval for low storage space checks is not user configurable. /Reference: : QUESTION 35 Which environment option can rollback transactions using a table involved in an ALTER FRAGMENT ON TABLE operation? A. FORCE_DML_EXEC B. FORCE_DDL_EXEC C. ROLLBACK_DML_EXEC D. ROLLBACK_DDL_EXEC /Reference: :

13 QUESTION 36 The user 'guest' connected to a local database world@lsys and wants to execute the following query: What two permissions does the user 'guest' need to access the remote table? (Choose two.) A. User 'guest' must have SELECT permission on 'globe' B. User 'guest' must have CONNECT permission on 'globe' C. User 'guest' must have SELECT permission on 'globe@rsys:position' D. User 'guest' must have CONNECT permission on 'globe@rsys:sadm.position' E. User 'guest' must have RESOURCE permission on 'world@lsys' C /Reference: : QUESTION 37 Identify a scenario when you CANNOT use in-place migration? A. When you want to change database locale. B. When you want to migrate from a 32-bit to a 64-bit port of Informix. C. When you want to defragment some of the heavily fragmented tables. D. When you want to use new configuration features in the new Informix version. /Reference: : QUESTION 38 If the DYNAMIC_LOGS onconfig parameter is set to 1 and logical log backups are not occurring, what will happen in the instance when the last logical-log file fills? A. The instance suspends all processing until the next logical-log file is manually added. B. The database server will automatically execute a checkpoint and flush the oldest update to disk. C. The database server will make use of any logical-log file available regardless of whether the available file is in sequence or not. D. The database server will stop processing, then start an automatic backup of the logical-log file and resume normal processing once the automatic back up of the logical-log files is completed. /Reference: : QUESTION 39 What two conditions must be met in order to use Kernel-asynchronous I/O (KAIO)? (Choose two.)

14 A. When AIO is not available. B. When the I/O is to raw disk space. C. When the I/O is to buffered file chunks. D. When the operating system supports it. E. When the KAIOON parameter in ONCONFIG file is set to 1. D /Reference: corrected and modified. QUESTION 40 Which connection type can be used for network connections? A. Sockets B. Named Pipes C. Stream Pipes D. Shared memory /Reference: : QUESTION 41 Which Windows utility is used to configure the SQLHOSTS registry key? A. ilogin B. instmgr C. setnet32 D. oncmsm /Reference: : QUESTION 42 How does the Deployment Assistant enable you to reduce the size of the installation to be deployed? A. By limiting the size of dbspaces. B. By removing specific databases. C. By removing specific product features. D. By removing all free space at the end of a chunk. /Reference: : QUESTION 43

15 Which statement about in-place migration is true? A. In-place migration is possible when an Informix instance is migrated from a non-informix database management system. B. In-place migration is possible when an Informix instance is migrated from an older version of Informix on the same operating system. C. In-place migration is possible when an Informix instance is migrated from an older version of Informix on a different operating system. D. In-place migration requires that the DBA copy the database schema, user data, and user objects from the older version to the newer version of Informix. /Reference: answer is corrected. QUESTION 44 Which statement is NOT true for interval fragmentation? A. A NULL fragment is allowed. B. A remainder fragment is allowed. C. Fragments cannot be overlapping. D. A fragment key can have only a single column. /Reference: : QUESTION 45 Given the two indexes defined on table tab1: Which optimization method may be used? A. STAR_JOIN B. MULTI_INDEX C. OUTER_INDEX D. INDEX_SELFJOIN /Reference: : QUESTION 46

16 Given the following table, what happens if you insert a row with an id of 450? A. The new row will be placed in the fragment p1. B. An error is returned stating that there is no suitable fragment. C. A new fragment is automatically added to store values >= 400 and < 500. D. A new fragment is automatically added to store values >= 200 and < 500. /Reference: : QUESTION 47 Given the following SQL statement: WHEN MATCHED THEN DELETE What does the merge statement do? A. Deletes rows in tab2 that match the condition col1 = c1. B. Deletes rows in tab1 that match the condition col1 = c1. C. Deletes rows in tab1 that match the condition col1 = c1 and deletes rows in tab2 that do not match the condition col1 = c1. D. Deletes rows in tab1 that match the condition col1 = c1 and insert rows in tab1 from those in tab2 that do not match the condition. /Reference: : QUESTION 48 Which utility requires database logging be turned off to load a table? A. load B. dbload C. onload

17 D. dbimport /Reference: : QUESTION 49 How does the Deployment Assistant enable you to reduce the size of the installation to be deployed? A. By limiting the size of dbspaces. B. By removing specific databases. C. By removing specific product features. D. By removing all free space at the end of a chunk. /Reference: : QUESTION 50 Which is NOT valid information in the SQLHOSTS connectivity file (or on windows the SQLHOSTS registry key)? A. Connection type. B. Number of listener threads. C. Host name and service name. D. Database server name or alias. /Reference: : QUESTION 51 Which of the following is NOT in the machine notes? A. Operating system requirements. B. Critical kernel tuning parameters. C. A descriptive list of the new features in the port. D. Features that are not available for the version and O/S.

18 /Reference: : QUESTION 52 What two parameters can affect how often checkpoints occur? (Choose two.) A. LOGSIZE B. PHYSFILE C. LTAPEDEV D. BUFFERPOOL E. BAR_PROGRESS_FREQ B /Reference: : QUESTION 53 What two conditions must be met for direct I/O to occur? (Choose two.) A. When the I/O is to raw disk space. B. When the I/O is to cooked disk space. C. When the table is too big to fit in the bufferpool. D. When doing I/O operations on temporary dbspaces. E. When the DIRECT_IO configuration parameter is set to 1. E /Reference: : QUESTION 54 Which utilities CANNOT be used to migrate an Informix instance from one hardware vendor to a different hardware vendor? A. dbacess unload and dbload B. onunload and onload C. dbexport and dbimport D. High Performance Loader (HPL) /Reference: : QUESTION 55 Assuming the DBSPACETEMP onconfig and environment variables are set to valid dbspace names, where is the first location the instance will attempt to create a temporary non logged table? A. rootdbs. B. The dbspace the database was created in. C. One of the dbspaces listed in the DBSPACETEMP environment variable.

19 D. One of the dbspaces listed in the DBSPACETEMP configuration parameter. /Reference: : QUESTION 56 What does this user-defined task/sensor do? A. Sensor that stores checkpoint information (onstat -g ckp) in the system. B. Task that forces a checkpoint every 2 minutes from 10am to 10pm, Monday to Friday. C. Task that forces a checkpoint every 20 minutes from 10am to 10pm, Monday to Friday. D. Sensor that forces a checkpoint every 2 minutes from 10am to 10pm, Monday to Friday. /Reference: : QUESTION 57 When running an onstat -u, what does a 'Y' in the first column of the flags signify?

20 A. The userthread is waiting on a condition. B. The userthread is waiting for end user I/O to complete. C. The userthread is waiting for a thread to yield a cpu vp. D. The userthread is waiting for a thread with a higher priority. /Reference: : QUESTION 58 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)? A. All events. B. Only for events with Severity code 1. C. Only for events with Severity code 5. D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1. /Reference: : QUESTION 59 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance? A. dbinfo B. onstat C. dbschema D. onmachinfo /Reference: : QUESTION 60 If SQLTRACE is enabled, what information is displayed by this statement? select max(sql_runtime) from syssqltrace; A. The SQL statement with the least wait time. B. The SQL statement with the least I/O wait time. C. The SQL statement with the most I/O wait time. D. The SQL statement with the most execution time. /Reference: :

21 QUESTION 61 Which onstat command returns an accurate free count of blobspace pages? A. onstat -d B. onstat -g blb C. onstat -d update D. onstat -d blobinfo /Reference: : QUESTION 62 Which user isolation level may cause concurrency problems with SELECT statements? A. Dirty Read B. Committed Read C. Dirty Read Last Committed D. Committed Read Last Committed /Reference: : QUESTION 63 What does the following SQL statement do? execute function task("reset sysadmin", "admindbs"); A. Renames sysadmin database to admindbs. B. Purges all "mon_*" tables in sysadmin database as user admindbs. C. Turns the whole Database Scheduler off and finally drops sysadmin database. D. Locks sysadmin database in exclusive mode and recreates it in dbspace admindbs. /Reference: : QUESTION 64 Given the following statement: session A: set lock mode to wait; select * from tab1; if session A is blocked, which sysmaster table contains the session id holding the lock blocking session A? A. syslocks B. sysscblst C. syssessions D. syslockholders

22 /Reference: : QUESTION 65 Which two statements are true for onbar only but not for ontape? (Choose two.) A. It can apply external programs using filters. B. It can restart a restore from the place it failed. C. It can back up to or restore from cloud storage. D. It can restore data to a given point in time (PIT). E. It can execute an external backup and restore. D /Reference: : QUESTION 66 What is used during Fast Recovery to return pages to the original state? A. Logical Log B. Physical Log C. External Tables D. Temporary DBSpaces /Reference: : QUESTION 67 Which $ONCONFIG parameter must be set enable parallel OnBar backup operations? A. BAR_MAX_BACKUP B. BAR_SIZE_FACTOR C. BAR_PERFORMANCE D. BAR_NB_XPORT_COUNT /Reference: : QUESTION 68 On which node of an Informix H/A cluster can you execute an external backup without disturbing cluster operations? A. Primary B. Shared disk secondary C. Remote standalone secondary D. High-availability data replication secondary

23 /Reference: : QUESTION 69 What are the main administrative roles involved in secure auditing and role separation? A. Database Security Administrator (DBSA), Audit Analysis Officer (AAO), Database Separation Officer (DBSO). B. Database Security Administrator (DBSA), Audit Trail Officer (ATO), Database System Security Officer (DBSSO). C. Database Server Administrator (DBSA), Audit Reader Admin (ARA), Database System Stability Officer (DBSSO). D. Database Server Administrator (DBSA), Audit Analysis Officer (AAO), Database System Security Officer (DBSSO). /Reference: : QUESTION 70 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment? A. ALL B. INSERT C. UPDATE D. CREATE INDEX /Reference: : QUESTION 71 The ability for Informix to allow database access to users without a local operating system account is: A. Not allowed. B. Allowed and called efault role?allowed and called?efault role? C. Allowed and called apped users?allowed and called?apped users? D. Allowed and called urrogate users?allowed and called?urrogate users? /Reference: : QUESTION 72 Which statement regarding the Single Sign-On (SSO) feature is correct?

24 A. You cannot use the Informix DB-Access client with SSO. B. The Informix implementation of SSO does not support PAM. C. Authentication for the DBMS happens when a user first logs in to the client computer or domain. D. The user is prompted for a password every time a user action tries to access an Informix database. /Reference: answer is verified. QUESTION 73 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects? A. DBA B. DBSA C. DBSSO D. DBSECADM /Reference: : QUESTION 74 Which is a valid PAM mode supported by Informix in a UNIX platform? A. Login mode B. Client mode C. Server mode D. Password mode /Reference: : QUESTION 75 Which of the following schema privileges allows you to rename a fragment? A. ALTER B. AMEND C. MODIFY D. RENAME

25 /Reference: : QUESTION 76 Consider the following selective row-level auditing example: How many entries will be added to the audit file? A. 0 B. 3 C. 5 D. 8 /Reference: : QUESTION 77 The following shrink command has what effect on the customer table? execute function sysadmin:task ("table shrink","customer") A. Moves all rows to the beginning of the table while users can modify the table. B. Locks the table in exclusive mode and moves all rows to the beginning of the table. C. Locks the table in exclusive mode and releases all free space at the end of the table. D. Releases all free space at the end of the table to the dbspace while users can modify the table. /Reference: :

26 QUESTION 78 When executing the following command: execute function sysadmin:task("table compress", "customer") what will happen to the customer table? A. The rows will be compressed and the table size will decrease. B. The table will be taken offline and compressed, and the table size will decrease. C. The rows will be compressed and the space allocated to the table will be the same. D. The table will be taken offline and compressed, but the space allocated to the table will be the same. /Reference: : QUESTION 79 Which storage space should be used to store columns defined as a BLOB or a CLOB? A. sbspace B. dbspace C. extspace D. blobspace /Reference: : QUESTION 80 When creating an index, which type of fragmentation is NOT allowed? A. List fragmentation. B. Interval fragmentation. C. Expression fragmentation. D. Round-robin fragmentation. /Reference: : QUESTION 81 Which statement about Informix data compression is NOT true? A. It can compress, repack and shrink a table in one command. B. There is no Admin API (sysadmin) interface to automatically compress tables. C. The 'onstat -g dsk' command can be used to find the progress of currently running compression operations. D. The compress, repack, repack_offline, uncompress, and uncompress_offline operations can consume large amounts of logs.

27 /Reference: : QUESTION 82 Which statement about compression is NOT true? A. If you use High-Availability clusters, data that is compressed on the primary will not be compressed on the secondary(s). B. If you use Enterprise Replication, compressing data on one replication server does not affect the data on any other replication server. C. You cannot perform compression operations on a High-Availability cluster secondary. D. The query optimizer may choose different query plans because compressed data covers fewer pages and has more rows per page thanuncompressed data. /Reference: : QUESTION 83 A storage pool entry can be used to do what? A. Increase the size of a chunk. B. Increase the size of the logical logs. C. Increase the size of the physical log. D. Increase the size of a storage space. /Reference: : QUESTION 84 How is the automatic addition of more space triggered? A. Via the default alarm program. B. When the instance is restarted. C. The internal mon_low_storage task. D. When the limit of the ADD_SPACE onconfig parameter is reached. /Reference: : QUESTION 85 What does the following task function do? EXECUTE FUNCTION task("storagepool add", "/region2/dbspaces", "0", "0", "20000", "1"); A. Creates a second storagepool. B. Creates dbspace at /region2/dbspaces. C. Invalid offset and total size for storagepool add command.

28 D. Add the directory /region2/dbspaces to the storagepool with a beginning offset of 0, a total size of 0, initial chunk size of 20 MB, and a high priority. /Reference: : QUESTION 86 Which statement about temporary dbspaces is FALSE? A. Temporary dbspaces are not backed up. B. A raw table can be created in a temporary dbspace. C. Tables stored in temporary dbspaces are not logged. D. Temporary dbspaces can have non-default page sizes. /Reference: : QUESTION 87 Which statement about automatic space management is true? A. Spaces cannot be extended manually. B. Only unmirrored spaces can be extended. C. Mirrored and unmirrored spaces can be extended. D. The time interval for low storage space checks is not user configurable. /Reference: : QUESTION 88 What is a requirement for online attach/detach of fragments? A. The table cannot have constraints. B. The table must have a unique index. C. The table must have a remainder fragment. D. The table fragmentation scheme and the index fragmentation scheme must be identical. /Reference: : QUESTION 89 Which parameter is used to configure the servers in a high-availability cluster so that transactions complete after failover? A. SURVIVAL_TX_ENABLE

29 B. FAILOVER_CALLBACK C. SURVIVAL_TX_TIMEOUT D. FAILOVER_TX_TIMEOUT /Reference: : QUESTION 90 What statement about users accessing a Flexible Grid is true? A. Every user can execute commands on the Flexible Grid. B. Only user informix can execute commands on a Flexible Grid. C. Users have to be authorized to execute Flexible Grid commands. D. Commands can only be executed from the node on which the Flexible Grid was created. /Reference: : QUESTION 91 Given the following SLA definition: SLA group_1=hdr+(inst_2+inst_3)+sds How will new connections be routed through the SLA? A. Load balanced between all secondary instances. B. Load balanced between inst_2 and inst_3, then either HDR or any SD secondary instance. C. The HDR instance first, then inst_2, followed by inst_3, finally to any SD secondary instance. D. The HDR instance first, load balanced between inst_2 and inst_3, then to any SD secondary instance. /Reference: : QUESTION 92 How can ER onconfig parameters be modified dynamically? A. cdr set onconfig B. cdr tune onconfig C. cdr define onconfig D. cdr change onconfig /Reference: : QUESTION 93 Which of the following is NOT a step in setting up HDR for the first time?

30 A. Take a level 0 backup of the primary. B. Use oninit -v to bring up the secondary. C. Execute a physical restore on the secondary. D. Use onmode -d to specify the secondary instance name. /Reference: : QUESTION 94 Which statement is true when creating a table through a Grid operation with the replication option enabled? A. A separate replicate set is created for each table. B. ERKEY shadow columns are automatically added to the table. C. The replication for the table is defined with the always apply conflict resolution rule. D. All servers in the Enterprise Replication domain are included as participants in the replicate created. /Reference: answer is up-to-date. QUESTION 95 Which of the following gives a good initial estimate for the physical log size? A. 110% of rootdbs. B. 110% the default buffer pool. C. 110% of the logical log space. D. 110% of combined buffer pool. /Reference: : QUESTION 96 Which action will NOT occur when the following command is executed? UPDATE STATISTICS HIGH A. Recompile all stored procedures. B. Update statistics low on all tables. C. Update statistics high on all tables. D. Update statistics medium on all tables. /Reference: : QUESTION 97

31 Which would provide the greatest performance benefit in a warehousing environment? A. Indexes on searched data. B. Short checkpoint durations. C. Large number of bufferpool buffers. D. Optimize decision support memory. /Reference: : QUESTION 98 Given the following customer table: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 /Reference: : QUESTION 99 Most, but not all Virtual Processors, can be modified via the onmode -p command. Which CANNOT be modified? A. ADM B. BTS C. CPU D. CSM /Reference: : QUESTION 100 Which two actions will occur when the following command is executed? (Choose two.) UPDATE STATISTICS HIGH AUTO A. Stored Procedures will be recompiled. B. Update statistics will run high on the table named AUTO.

32 C. Update statistics will run high only on the first column of an index. D. Update statistics will run high only after the optimizer decides the statistics are too old. E. Update statistics will run high only on columns which meet the STATSCHANGE threshold. E /Reference: : QUESTION 101 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints? A. To avoid LRU flushes. B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available. C. To ensure the onstat -g ckp report is accurate. D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints. /Reference: : QUESTION 102 What two onconfig parameters will help improve performance of new network connections? (Choose two.) A. NETTYPE B. VPCLASS C. NS_CACHE D. FET_BUF_SIZE E. NUMFDSERVERS E /Reference: : QUESTION 103 Without explicitly setting DBSPACETEMP and TEMPTABLE_NOLOG, where will temporary tables be created by default? (Choose three.) A. The root dbspace. B. The users' home directory. C. The $INFORMIXDIR/tmp directory. D. The dbspace in which the active database was created. E. The /tmp directory or PSORT_DBTEMP.

33 DE /Reference: : QUESTION 104 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database? A. sysdb B. sysdblog C. sysdatabases D. sysdblogstatus /Reference: : QUESTION 105 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility? A. The database logging mode. B. The schemas of remote databases. C. The table definitions without owner names. D. The onspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces. /Reference: : QUESTION 106 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance? A. dbinfo B. onstat C. dbschema D. onmachinfo /Reference: : QUESTION 107 Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database Scheduler tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run? A. onstat -g dbc B. onstat -g sch C. onstat -g adm

34 D. onstat -g tsk /Reference: : QUESTION 108 What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show? A. The number of times that a buffer was read. B. The number of times a buffer was extended. C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten. D. The number of times the instance ran out of free buffers. /Reference: : QUESTION 109 Which SQL Administration API command will merge non-contiguous table extents? A. shrink B. defragment C. table repack D. merge extents /Reference: : QUESTION 110 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)? A. All events. B. Only for events with Severity code 1. C. Only for events with Severity code 5. D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1. /Reference: : QUESTION 111 When a SELECT statement is executed which statement is true? A. The number and duration of the locks is dependent on the ISOLATION LEVEL. B. If COMMITTED READ isolation is in place then the SELECT will never encounter any locking errors.

35 C. Within a transaction the database server will place row or page locks on a nonlogging table. D. If the SELECT is part of an UPDATE cursor then the database server will place an exclusive lock on the entire dataset. /Reference: : QUESTION 112 For a given procedure name, what is the objective of the SQL query shown below? A. The query returns the ordered text form of the specified procedure body. B. The query returns the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body. C. The query returns both ordered text and ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body. D. The query returns neither the ordered text nor the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body. /Reference: : QUESTION 113 Which statement about auditing is NOT true? A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table. B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table. C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system catalog tables. D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system catalog tables. /Reference: : QUESTION 114 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation? A. It is always the group informix. B. It is set using the onsecurity command line tool. C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir. D. It is the group specified in the DBSSO onconfig parameter.

36 /Reference: : QUESTION 115 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects? A. DBA B. DBSA C. DBSSO D. DBSECADM /Reference: : QUESTION 116 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record? A. Specific rows. B. Specific users. C. Specific tables. D. Specific DML operations. /Reference: : QUESTION 117 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true? A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations. B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names. C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels. D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account. /Reference: : QUESTION 118 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.) A. Enter the CSM name in the sqlhosts file. B. Set the IFX_ENCCSM onconfig parameter to 1. C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file. D. Enter the CSM name in the onconfig NETTYPE parameter.

37 E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM. C /Reference: appropriate answer. QUESTION 119 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment? A. ALL B. INSERT C. UPDATE D. CREATE INDEX /Reference: : QUESTION 120 Which statement regarding default roles is true? A. An administrator can define a default role to assign only to the PUBLIC group for a particular database. B. The privileges associated with a default role takes precedence over the privileges granted to an individual user. C. An administrator can define a default role to assign to individual users or to the PUBLIC group for a particular database. D. When a user connects to a database, it is necessary to use the SET ROLE DEFAULT statement in order to gain the default role privileges. /Reference: : QUESTION 121 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints? A. To avoid LRU flushes. B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available. C. To ensure the onstat -g ckp report is accurate. D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints. /Reference: : QUESTION 122 Which statement about the scope of UPDATE STATISTICS is true?

38 A. If the FOR PROCEDURE keywords are included but the name of any SPL routine is not specified, an error will be returned. B. If the FOR TABLE keywords are used without specifying the name or synonym of a table, the database will not recalculate distributions for any table in the current database. C. If the FOR TABLE keywords are specified with a table but without specifying a list of columns, the database server will not recalculate distributions on all of the columns of the specified table. D. If the FOR PROCEDURE specification, Table and Column Scope, and Resolution clauses are NOT included, then the statistics are updated for every table and SPL routine in the current database. /Reference: : QUESTION 123 Which two corrective actions may be taken if following message is logged in the online message log during a failed attempt to bring an instance online? (Choose two) 18:15:44 Size of resident + virtual segments KB KB > KB 18:15:44 total allowed by configuration parameter SHMTOTAL A. Decrease SHMADD B. Increase SHMTOTAL C. Decrease SHMBASE D. Increase SHMVIRTSIZE E. Decrease buffer pool size E /Reference: corrected.