CCNA Practice test. 2. Which protocol can cause high CPU usage? A. NTP B. WCCP C. Telnet D. SNMP Answer: D

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1 1. Which network would support at least 30 hosts? A B C D Which protocol can cause high CPU usage? A. NTP B. WCCP C. Telnet D. SNMP 3. What is an OSPF process ID? A. AS Number B. Area specific identifier C. Locally significant identifier D. Virtual Link ID 4. Where do you configure an IP address on a layer 3 etherchannel interface? A. On one of the member interfaces B. The port-channel interface C. All of the member interfaces D. SVI Answer: B

2 5. What command is used to display the mac address table on a switch? A. show switch table B. show cam-table C. show interface status D. show mac address-table 6. What three parameters must match on interfaces to join the same etherchannel? A. speed B. description C. port mode D. access vlan,c,d 7. Which feature can monitor traffic flows and applications? A. SNMP B. IP SLA C. NetFlow D. NTP 8. Which two components are used by SNMP? A. MIB B. Key Chain C. Traps D. STP,C

3 9. Refer to the exhibit: router eigrp 1 network passive-interface default Why is this EIGRP router not forming an adjacency with its neighbor? A. All interfaces are passive B. Only one interface is enabled for EIGRP C. A router-id is not manually configured 10. Which FHRP technique supports load balancing? A. HSRP B. VRRP C. GLBP 11. What layer 2 feature creates a broadcast domain? A. STP B. VLAN C. VTP D. Etherchannel Answer: B

4 12. Which statement best describes Inverse ARP? A. Map an IP address to a Mac address B. Map a Mac address to a DLCI C. Map a DLCI to an IP address D. Map a DLCI to an interface 13. Which command will display VTP information? A. show vtp status B. show vlan trunking status C. show vtp summary D. show vtp 14. Which two parameters can be used to calculate EIGRP paths? A. Hop count B. Bandwidth C. Delay D. Router ID Answer: B,C 15. Which three Layer 2 technologies are used for WAN connections? A. LACP B. PPP C. Frame-Relay D. HDLC Answer: B,C,D

5 16. What is the subnet mask for the network /12? A B C D Answer: B 17. What would be the destination mac address when host A is communicating with host B? Host A: IP MAC Mask Host A Gateway: IP MAC Host B: IP MAC Mask Gateway Host B Gateway: IP MAC A B C D Which WAN device terminates a digital local loop? A. Modem B. Switch C. CSU/DSU D. Hub

6 19. Which OSI model layer does Telnet belong to? A. Transport B. Internet C. Data Link D. Application 20. Refer to the exhibit: In the diagram there are three hosts connected to a Hub. How many collision domains are there in this topology? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1

7 21. How many host bits are available out of this network: /24? A. 8 B. 24 C. 16 D VLANs would be configured on which device? A. Hub B. PC C. Switch D. Printer 23. Which OSI Model Layer does FTP belong to? A. Application B. Network C. Transport D. Data-Link 24. What configuration parameter is used by OSPF, but not by EIGRP A. Area B. Network C. Router-id D. Autonomous System

8 25. Refer to the exhibit: Host C VLAN 2 VLAN 2 VLAN 100 Host B Host A If Host B sent a broadcast, which Hosts would receive it? A. Host A B. Host A and Host C C. Host C D. No Host

9 26. Refer to the exhibit: R1#sh int f0/0 FastEthernet0/0 is administratively down, line protocol is down Hardware is i82543 (Livengood), address is ca (bia ca ) MTU 1500 bytes, BW Kbit/sec, DLY 100 usec, reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255 Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not set Keepalive set (10 sec) Full-duplex, 100Mb/s, 100BaseTX/FX ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00 Last input never, output never, output hang never Last clearing of "show interface" counters never Input queue: 0/75/0/0 (size/max/drops/flushes); Total output drops: 0 Queueing strategy: fifo Output queue: 0/40 (size/max) 5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 5 minute output rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec 0 packets input, 0 bytes Received 0 broadcasts (0 IP multicasts) 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles 0 input errors, 0 CRC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored 0 watchdog 0 input packets with dribble condition detected 0 packets output, 0 bytes, 0 underruns 0 output errors, 0 collisions, 0 interface resets 0 unknown protocol drops 0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred 0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier 0 output buffer failures, 0 output buffers swapped out Based on the output, why is the interface not in the up state? Answer: B A. Port is not connected B. Port is shutdown C. Layer 2 is down D. Layer 3 is down

10 27. What command can be used to discover the hostname and IP address of a connected Cisco device? A. show cdp device B. show cdp neighbor detail C. show neighbor cdp detail D. show cdp Answer: B 28. Which route would be considered to be the best? A /16 [1/0] via B /16 [90/0] via C /16 [110/0] via D /16 [20/0] via Which command could verify how much space is available in a router s flash? A. show running-config B. show processes C. show flash D. show memory 30. What is the administrative distance for OSPF routes be default? A. 100 B. 90 C. 110 D. 120

11 31. Which access-list only allows icmp? A. ip access-list extended icmp permit icmp any any B. ip access-list extended icmp permit ip any any C. ip access-list extended icmp permit tcp any any 32. Which OSPF network statement would enable OSPF Area 0 for an interface with IP address /24? A. network area 0 B. network area 0 C. network area 1 D. network area Which command could be used for a switch with IP address to communicate with the network? A. ip default-gateway B. ip default-gateway C. ip default-gateway D. ip default-gateway

12 34. Refer to the exhibit: Bridge Priority 4096 Switch 1 Switch 2 Switch 3 Bridge Priority Bridge Priority 8192 Which Switch would become the spanning-tree root switch? A. Switch 1 B. Switch 2 C. Switch What is the term used for using multiple sub-interfaces on a router physical interface? A. intervlan routing B. stub routing C. router on a stick

13 36. Which type of cable should be used to connect a switch to switch? A. straight-through B. cross-over C. null modem D. rollover Answer: B 37. Which three terms belong to the OSI Model s Transport Layer A. UDP B. Segment C. IP D. TCP,B,D 38. How many network bits are there in a subnet mask? A. 19 B. 17 C. 20 D Which choice is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:::1/64 B. 2001:ABCD:BAD1:BAD1::1/64 C. 2001:G111:1111:1111::1/64 D. 2001:FFFF::AAAA::1/64 Answer: B

14 40. You have been asked to allocate a subnet that could be used to assign 50 IP addresses. Which subnet could be used based on this requirement? A /29 B /30 C /28 D / Which three choices are SNMPv3 features? A. Communities B. Message Integrity C. Authentication D. Compression E. Encryption Answer: B,C,E 42. How many bits of a Mac Address does an OUI use? A. 32 B. 12 C. 24 D Which command is required to enable IPv6 routing? A. ip routing B. ipv6 enable C. ipv6 router D. ipv6 unicast-routing

15 44. What would be the best summarization for these routes? A /22 B /22 C /16 D / Which subnet could support 55 hosts while preserving the most IP addresses as possible? A B C D Which command should be applied to an Internet facing interface on a NAT device? A. ip nat inside B. ip nat C. ip nat outside D. nat outside

16 47. What term is used to describe IPv4 and IPv6 addresses co-existing on a network device? A. DHCPv6 B. Autoconfiguration C. IPv6 unicast-routing D. Dual-stack 48. Which IPv6 addressing is used for multicast addressing? A. FECO::/10 B. 2000::/3 C. FF00::/8 D. EE00::/8 49. Which command enables port-security on an interface? A. port-security B. switchport port-security C. switchport mode access D. switchport security Answer: B 50. Which spanning-tree feature is used to protect an interface from receiving BPDUs? A. Backbonefast B. Portfast C. BPDU Guard D. BPDU Filter

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Configuring Link Aggregation on the ML-MR-10 card

CHAPTER 34 Configuring Link Aggregation on the ML-MR-10 card This chapter applies to the ML-MR-10 card and describes how to configure link aggregation for the ML-Series cards, both EtherChannel and packet-over-sonet/sdh