Vendor: Cisco. Exam Code: Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam. Version: Demo

Transcription

1 Vendor: Cisco Exam Code: Exam Name: CCIE Data Center Written Exam Version: Demo

2 QUESTION 1 FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field C. STPl independence D. 10 Gbps bandwidth E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers BC QUESTION 2 A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this? A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type. B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules. C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only. D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system. QUESTION 3 Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.) A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration. B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created. C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group. D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL. E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel. Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 4 Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.) A. virtualization B. unified I/O C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card D. support for Data Center Service Modules E. high performance F. high availability Correct Answer: BEF QUESTION 5 Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct? A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vpc when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV mode. B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch. C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder. D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR. E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre Channel Bridge functions. Correct Answer: E QUESTION 6 Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces. B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces. C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination ID load balancing are used. D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches. E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive. Correct Answer: E QUESTION 7 Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager? A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches B. save and copy configuration files and software images C. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels D. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX E. configure FCoE QUESTION 8 What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.) A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches

3 B. Faster throughput C. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment D. Support for increased number of VSANs E. Support for SAN port channels C QUESTION 9 If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module that does not match the resource type is installed? A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state. B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated. C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0. D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100. QUESTION 10 What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for the system MAC address? A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco. B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure uniqueness. C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane. D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch. QUESTION 11 Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.) A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled B. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled D. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired E. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired BE QUESTION 12 In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure full remote access via management 0? A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisor B. Three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisor C. One IP address that is shared among supervisors D. None--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created QUESTION 13 VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose two.) A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status, from one device to another. B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs. C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes. D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled. E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings. B QUESTION 14 Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which method? A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216 B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216 C. Using the command interface MTU 9216 D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map QUESTION 15 Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.) A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication mode responds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local authentication. B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+. C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials. D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings requires an authentication license. E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server. E QUESTION 16 DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary areas of this operation? A. Analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring

4 B. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device manager C. Definition of flows, information collection, and data presentation D. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation QUESTION 17 What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender? A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo. B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS. C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required. D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU Correct Answer: B QUESTION 18 DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these? (Choose three.) A. Collecting the running configuration B. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement C. Discovering all devices by default D. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accounts E. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors BE QUESTION 19 You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft Windows Server B. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise Server C. Oracle Enterprise Linux D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux E. VMware ESX D QUESTION 20 Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features, including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.) A. GLBP B. HSRP C. IRDP D. VRRP B QUESTION 21 The vpc peer-gateway capability allows a vpc switch to act as the active gateway for packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vpc peer. This feature enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vpc peer link. Which statements are true about the vpc peer-gateway? (Choose two.) A. The vpc peer-gateway feature is enabled by default. B. The vpc peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vpc domain submode. C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vpc VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched through the peer gateway router. D. The vpc peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 22 Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.) A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt D. SoL and NX-OS E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI B QUESTION 23 A virtual port channel (vpc) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device. Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vpc? (Choose six.) A. Enable feature vpc B. Define domains C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity D. Create a peer link E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port

5 F. Create port channels and vpcs G. Define port channel load-balancing method H. Make sure configurations are consistent BCDFH QUESTION 24 When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two of these parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.) A. port-profile B. command C. access-list D. feature-group E. OID C QUESTION 25 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.) A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface. B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain. C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface. D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain. B QUESTION 26 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.) A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time. B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time. C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router. D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router. E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150. F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50. E QUESTION 27 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.) A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface. B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay. C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface. D. Join interface can be a loopback interface. E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one. BC QUESTION 28 Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.) A. encryption--scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sources

6 B. password--a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protection C. authentication--determines that the message is from a valid source D. message integrity--ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit E. user--to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings CD QUESTION 29 The hardware and software configurations for vpc+ are similar to that of traditional vpc. What are the differences in the configuration of vpc+? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vpc domain. B. Virtual switch ID of vpc+ must be configured under FabricPath domain. C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vpc+ peer links. D. The vpc+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath). E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vpc domain. CD QUESTION 30 Smart Call Home provides an -based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard , or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.) A. short-text-destination B. prerecorded audio alerts C. CiscoTAC-1 D. dial911 E. full-text-destination CE QUESTION 31 After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog: %STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is the cause of this message? A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled. B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled. C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. QUESTION 32 Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications? A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain. B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain. C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports. D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports. QUESTION 33 On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.) A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID. B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address. C. Higher system ID is preferred. D. Lower system ID is preferred. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 34 Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.) A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices. B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices. C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions. D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down. C QUESTION 35 What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC? A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpoint B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablement C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configuration D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase Correct Answer: B

7 QUESTION 36 What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration? A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface. B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-ip packets that enter the interface. C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface. D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings. QUESTION 37 In a virtual port channel (vpc) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic? A. VRRP does not work with vpc due to industry standard requirements B. VRRP works with vpc in traditional active/standby modes C. VRRP works with vpc in an active/active mode D. VRRP work with vpc as long as vpc peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard replies to the physical MAC address QUESTION 38 On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and what is the main purpose of virtual output queues? A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-cos basis B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queues C. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress ports D. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queues E. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS QUESTION 39 On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component? A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU QUESTION Feb 23 23:00: pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello- message from on Ethernet1/18, message discarded 2012 Feb 23 23:00: pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18 from , holdtime. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1 You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface. What is the problem based on the debug output? A. The peer router has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. B. The peer router has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. C. The local router has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18. D. The peer router does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. E. The local router does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18. QUESTION 41 What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy? A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks B. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methods C. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topology D. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration Correct Answer: B QUESTION 42 Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco Nexus switches? A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors. B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration. C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the configuration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it. D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OS Software on the switch with ISSU. E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus QUESTION 43 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which tasks? A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmit multicast and broadcast. B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.

8 C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN within a site. D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN. QUESTION 44 Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose three.) A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp-snooping command. B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the DHCP snooping binding database. C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabled globally and for each specific VLAN. D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch. E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the configuration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature. Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 45 Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.) A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed devices. B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the network operator role. C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM- LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices. D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device. E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported. CD QUESTION 46 Nexus# conf t Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10 % Permission denied Nexus(config)#? no Negate a command or set its defaults username Configure user information. end Go to exec mode exit Exit from command interpreter What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands? A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode. B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of Layer 3 interfaces. C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator. D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode. E. The AAA server is currently not responding. QUESTION 47 Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN? (Choose three.) A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported with any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device. B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the DCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address and credentials. C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device. D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration change management. E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version. DE QUESTION 48 Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.) A. In a vpc topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required. B. In a vpc topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled. C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while providing the default router redundancy. D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration. E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also removed. CE QUESTION 49 Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are collected and reported individually per VDC. B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible. C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled. D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.

9 E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. QUESTION 50 Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only compatible with other Cisco routers. B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace period that tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface. C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it experiences a cold reboot. D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or if the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency with the restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart. E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU. QUESTION 51 Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config. B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session. C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions. D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software. E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication with the device. Correct Answer: E QUESTION 52 Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol bridges? A. C84C.75FA.6000 B E11.02FD C. C84C.76FA.6000 D QUESTION 53 Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isis command before OTV adjacencies can be established. B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other OTV edge peers. C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlay network. D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets that are then sent to the other sites. QUESTION 54 How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vpc peers? A. IGMP is not synchronized between vpc peers B. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vpc peer link C. IP ARP synchronization under the vpc domain configuration also synchronizes IGMP D. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vpc peers Correct Answer: B QUESTION 55 Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches? A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator B. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operator C. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator D. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network-admin and network-operator (for other Nexus switches) E. admin and read-only QUESTION 56 What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vpc configuration? A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vpc peers every five minutes B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vpc peer is restored D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency QUESTION 57 Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none

10 Switch-querier enabled, address , currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111 Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output? A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command. B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with /32 is currently in a down state. C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI. D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode. E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database. QUESTION 58 What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath? A. 128 B. 32 C. 64 D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology Correct Answer: B QUESTION 59 Assuming the local peer is and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is , which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch? A. feature pim interface loopback1 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode interface loopback2 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode ip pim anycast-rp ip pim anycast-rp ip pim rp-address group-list /4 B. feature pim interface loopback1 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode interface loopback2 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode ip pim anycast-rp ip pim anycast-rp ip pim rp-address group-list /4 C. interface loopback1 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode interface loopback2 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode ip pim anycast-rp ip pim anycast-rp ip pim rp-address group-list /4 D. feature pim feature msdp interface loopback1 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode interface loopback2 ip address /32 ip router ospf 10 area ip pim sparse-mode ip msdp originator-id loopback1

11 ip msdp peer connect-source loopback1 ip msdp description To ip msdp password mypassword ip pim rp-address group-list /4 QUESTION 60 When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay? A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control- group multicast address for transport B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast address for transport D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs QUESTION 61 Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choose three.) A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode. B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast configuration is possible on the switch. C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the feature pim command. D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance. E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM. CD QUESTION 62 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command? switch# config terminal switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10 switch(config)# A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module B. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110 C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs. D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module QUESTION 63 Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated? A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated. B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated. C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated. D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated. QUESTION 64 In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.) A. Root priority B. System ID C. Bridge ID D. Switch ID E. Port ID F. Subswitch ID BD QUESTION 65 By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software? A. DSA key generated with 512 bits B. RSA key generated with 768 bits C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit.

12 Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switches running vpc use this field to identify the specific virtual switch. B. FabricPath switches running vpc+ use this field to identify the specific vpc+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded. C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vpc+ switch pair. D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain. E. In the absence of vpc+, this field is set to 0. Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 67 In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU? A. GLBP redirect timer B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer C. GLBP hold timer D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer E. GLBP extended hold timer F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer Correct Answer: E QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. vpc+ is configured between which switches? A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23 B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12 C. Switch-ID 100 only D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100 QUESTION 69 SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Software use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.) A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol C. Community String Match protocol D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol Correct Answer: BE QUESTION 70 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.) A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport. B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport. C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server. D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server. C

13 QUESTION 71 Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.) A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs. B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed. C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs. D. Only options drop and forward are permitted. Correct Answer: BC QUESTION 72 Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true? A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default. B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended. C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode. D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended. B QUESTION 73 Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled? A. Cisco AV-pair B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute D. privilege level attribute QUESTION 74 Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.) A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP. C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel. D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed CD QUESTION 75 Nexus7000# config t Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11 Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association Nexus700(config-if)# exit Nexus700(config)# What will this command sequence achieve? A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50 B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50 C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14 D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50 QUESTION 76 Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group? A. show interface priority-flow-control B. show interface queuing C. show queuing interface D. show policy-map system type queuing E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing QUESTION 77 Refer to the exhibit.

14 During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vpc), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue? A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch. B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch. C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch. D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch. QUESTION 78 With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state? A. show memory detailed B. show process cpu sorted C. show system resources D. show hardware capacity QUESTION 79 What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS? A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic. C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic. QUESTION 80 Virtual PortChannels (vpcs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four) A. Two peer devices: the vpc peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vpc domain. B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when needed D. vpc member ports forming the PortChannel E. A dot1q trunk between the vpc peers F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios. BCD QUESTION 81 Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.)

15 A. port security B. fabric binding C. IVR D. port tracking E. FICON E QUESTION 82 Refer to the exhibit. Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB. Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link? A. show fspf traffic vsan 10 B. show vsan 10 C. show trunk protocol D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 83 What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment? A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command QUESTION 84 Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX. B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels. C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF. D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is supported. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 85 Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch? Flow ID. 44 Initiator VSAN: 200 Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db Target VSAN: 200 Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef Target LUN: ALL LUNs Flow Verification Status: Initiator Verification Status: success Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: success Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked Feature Status: Write-Acceleration enabled Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024 Configuration Status: flow verification failed A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist B. The zone set has not been activated C. The target is not logged into the fabric D. The pwwn used for the target is invalid QUESTION 86 Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class of Ethernet traffic? A. LLDP B. LACP

16 C. PFC D. FIP QUESTION 87 Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE? A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabled B. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16 C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel D. It's hard-set but can disable all but one class E. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight QUESTION 88 When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in the team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 16 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 89 Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel? A. Cannot be disabled B. Cannot have the CoS changed C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled D. Is multicast optimized E. Can have the MTU changed QUESTION 90 Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.) A. Priority flow control B. Buffer-to-buffer credits C. TCP retransmission D. Ethernet checksum E. QoS policies E QUESTION 91 Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric? A. show flogi database B. show system fc login C. show npv flogi-table D. show npv fcns database E. show interface vfc X flogi F. show interface flogi QUESTION 92 Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause? A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated. B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE. C. The system is running with the default QOS policies. D. The link is oversubscribed. QUESTION 93 On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.) A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage C. FIP negotiation timing D. Peer does not support LLDP E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled BD QUESTION 94

17 When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module. B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module. C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module. D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module. D QUESTION 95 Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol? A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path. B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments. C. It is not used to build the FCoE links. D. It is used to ensure lossless transport. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 96 Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame? A. Ethernet FCS B. Source address C. Destination address D. EtherType E. Protocol type QUESTION 97 What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.) A. Up to 25 m bus length B. Only one device per SCSI bus C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus D. Half-duplex operation E. Full-duplex operation C QUESTION 98 Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host? A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port. B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port. C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port. D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port. QUESTION 99 A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue? switch# show npv status npiv is enabled External Interfaces: =============== InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4 A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch? B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN? D. The local host interface is not able to login Correct Answer: B QUESTION 100 Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.) A. use summary view in the device manager B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance collections BE QUESTION 101 A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vnics for functioning? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2

18 D. 3 E. 4 QUESTION 102 When configuring vpc-hm CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required? A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup. B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active. C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive. D. With vpc-hm CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink. E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on. Correct Answer: E QUESTION 103 How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 F. 5 QUESTION 104 Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.) A. accounting B. authentication C. authorization D. network monitoring E. network planning DE QUESTION 105 Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS? A. channel-group auto mode on B. channel-group auto mode active C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning Correct Answer: E QUESTION 106 vpath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vpath? (Choose two.) A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager E. deep packet inspection B QUESTION 107 n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status Current Status : Enabled Running Config Status : Enabled Saved Config Status : Disabled What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.) A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v. B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch. C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.

19 D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM. E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances. E QUESTION 108 The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vsphere environments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vethernet and uplink ports? A. All vethernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. B. All vethernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted. C. All vethernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted. D. All vethernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. QUESTION 109 When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these? A. Upstream switch B. Virtual Supervisor Module C. VMware distributed switch D. VMware vswitch E. Service virtual machine Correct Answer: E QUESTION 110 Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon? Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning State enabled Vmware port-group No shut Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200 Switchport mode access Switchport vlan 200 State enabled Vmware port-group No shut A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk B. show module 3 internal pinning C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port D. show module vem mapping E. show interface vethx pinning QUESTION 111 What are the four vpath packet flow steps? (Choose four.) A. perform flow lookups B. intercept packets on service enabled ports C. run packets through the vpath flow manager D. classify the packets E. flow manager emits an action for the packets F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager Correct Answer: BCEF QUESTION 112 A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv. Interface fastethernet 1/10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface fastethernet 1/11 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface port-channel10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport allowed vlan all No shut

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