CCIE Voice Number: 1 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1.0

Transcription

1 CCIE Voice Number: 1 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: Cisco updated with s and removal of Actual Test spam CCIETM Voice Written Version: 20.0 Cisco Exam Topic 1, Volume A

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 What are two advantages of multicast technologies? (Choose two.) A. Denial of service attacks in the network are prevented. B. They eliminate multipoint applications. C. They reduce traffic by delivering a separate stream of information to each corporate recipient or home environment, which reduces bandwidth. D. They control network traffic and reduce server and CPU load. E. They eliminate traffic redundancy. Correct Answer: DE /Reference: QUESTION 2 Which two descriptions apply to the Calling Search Space function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. It defines which numbers are available for a device to call. B. It provides a group of dial patterns to look through when making a call. C. Within a partition, each CSS has a directory number. D. It defines route patterns and directory numbers which calls can be received. E. It defines the search for directory numbers in assigned partitions according to dial patterns. Correct Answer: AE /Reference: QUESTION 3 Which two statements apply to the partitions function in Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. When a directory number or route pattern is placed into a certain partition, this creates a rule for who can call that device or route list. B. A partition is a logical grouping of directory numbers and route patterns that have similar reachability characteristics. C. Calling Search Spaces are assigned to partitions. D. A directory number may appear in only one partition. E. Within the partition, each CSS has a directory number. Correct Answer: AB /Reference:

3 QUESTION 4 Which three statements are true about multicast IGMP snooping? (Choose three.) A. When a host in a multicast group sends an IGMP leave message, only that port is deleted the multicast group. B. An IP multicast stream to the IP host can be stopped only by an IGMP leave message. C. IGMP snooping does not examine or snoop Layer 3 information in packets that are sent between the hosts and the router. D. When the switch hears the IGMP host report a host for a particular multicast group, the switch adds the host's port number to the associated multicast table entry. E. IGMP control messages are transmitted as IGMP multicast packets so that they can be distinguished normal multicast data at Layer 2. F. A switch that is running IGMP snooping examines every multicast data packet to verify whether it contains any pertinent IGMP "must control" information. Correct Answer: ADF /Reference: QUESTION 5 Which three options are valid SCCP call states sent to an IP phone? A. Ring Off B. On Hook C. Call Transmit D. Connected E. Disconnected F. In Use Remotely Correct Answer: BDF /Reference: 1 Off Hook 2 On Hook 3 Ring Out 4 Ring In 5 Connected 6 Busy 7 Line In Use 8 Hold 9 Call Waiting 10 Call Transfer 11 Call Park 12 Call Proceed 13 In Use Remotely 14 Invalid Number

4 products_tech_note09186a shtml QUESTION 6 Which three statements are true about Cisco Discovery Protocol? (Choose three.) A. It is an excellent tool for displaying the interface status on switches. B. It works on top of the network layer and data link level. C. It uses a multicast packet with a destination MAC address of CC-CC-CC. D. The platform TLV (TLV type 0x0006) contains an ASCII character string that describes the hardware platform of the device. E. You can use the CDP timer feature to change update times. The default is 60 seconds. F. It uses a broadcast packet with a destination MAC address of CC-CC-CC. Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: QUESTION 7 Which two of the following are functions of DHCP snooping? (Choose two.) A. relies on already discovered trusted and untrusted ports B. dynamic ARP inspection C. defines trusted and untrusted ports D. uses existing binding tables E. builds a binding table F. automatically builds ACLs Correct Answer: CE /Reference: The DHCP snooping feature determines whether traffic sources are trusted or untrusted. The DHCP snooping binding database is also referred to as the DHCP snooping binding table. snoodhcp.html#wp QUESTION 8

5 Refer to the exhibit. 4 Traffic flows the IP phone that is connected to SW1 to the IP phone on SW2. If the trust boundary has been extended to the IP phone on SW1, in what two places will traffic be marked and classified so that the proper QoS settings may be carried through the network? (Choose two.) A. IP phone attached to SW1 B. SW1 ingress port C. R1 ingress port D. SW1 egress port E. R1 egress port Correct Answer: BC /Reference: Not ip Phone? Priority extend trust - trust device cisco-phone QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.

6 Which gatekeeper mechanism prevents the gatekeeper using all the resources on either gateway 1 or gateway 2 when sending calls to zones SE and NW? A. bandwidth remote B. resource availability indicator C. bandwidth total D. bandwidth zone E. lrq immediate advance F. ras timeout brq Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 10 When implementing a Cisco Unified Communications Manager solution over an MPLS WAN, which two rules must be observed to prevent overrunning the priority queue? (Choose two.) A. RSVP will transparently pass application IDs the customer network across the MPLS WAN. B. The media streams must be the same size in both directions. C. Only the connection to the MPLS WAN where the Cisco Unified Communications Manager resides must be enabled as a CE device. D. The media has to be symmetrically routed. E. If the CE is under corporate control, it may support either topology-aware or measurement- based CAC. Correct Answer: BD /Reference:

7 QUESTION 11 How is fax pass-through traffic treated over IP WAN connections that use the G.729 codec? A. The fax traffic is demodulated and sent with VAD and echo chancellor disabled. B. When the TGW detects the CED tone the fax machine that has been contacted, the TGW changes to the G.711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled. C. When the OGW detects the CED tone the fax machine that is making the call, the OGW is informed by the contacted device of the Cisco NSF features and switches to the G.711 codec with VAD disabled. D. The contacting fax machine sends a TCF message to the contacted fax machine and waits for a CFR message. When the CFR message is received, the fax tones sent by the contacting fax machine cause the OGW to send an NSF message to the TGW, instructing it to switch to the E. 711 codec with echo chancellor and VAD disabled. Correct Answer: B /Reference: Once a terminating gateway (TGW) detects a CED tone a called fax machine, the TGW exchanges the voice codec that was negotiated during the voice call setup for a G.711 codec and turns off EC and VAD. cisco_ios_fax_services_over_ip_application_guide/fxappdoc.html QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.

8 How many simultaneous G.729 calls can be established between sites SJ and RTP? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 E. 12 Correct Answer: C /Reference: G729 = 8kbit. 8 x 2 = 16. Interzone bandwith = /16 = 6 QUESTION 13

9 Company Alpha has a central office and a branch office that utilize a central call processing toplogy. Calls between the two sites are using the G.729 codec; calls within each site are using the G.711 codec. To conference an existing call between two phones at the central site with a phone at the remote office, which two of the following are possible solutions? (Choose two.) A. a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. a software conference bridge that is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager and a HW transcoder C. a hardware conference bridge D. a hardware transcoder and a hardware conference bridge E. No extra configurations required--phones automatically negotiate using the lowest common denominator codec (G.729) Correct Answer: BC /Reference: Software Ressources are not capable of transcoding, always HW required for this QUESTION 14 Refer to the exhibit.

10 You have been asked to edit the sample auto attendant script so that callers are prompted to press 1 for sales,

11 2 for service, or 3 for the directory. If callers select 3, they should hear the existing menu choices to dial by extension, dial by name, or transfer to the operator. What steps can you take to create this nested menu? A. Drag a new Menu step the palette and drop it on the Start step. Drag the existing Menu step and drop it on Output 3 of the new Menu. B. Drag a new Menu step the palette and drop it on the existing Menu step. This will make the existing Menu subordinate to the new Menu. C. Drag a new Menu step the palette and drop it on the existing Menu step. Drag the existing Menu step and drop it on Output 3 of the new Menu. D. Delete the existing Menu. Drag a new Menu step the palette and drop it on the Set prefixprompt=p[] step. Recreate the existing directory menu as the third option of the new Menu step. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 15 Which two of these are possible reasons why a JTAPI subsystem might have the status PARTIAL_SERVICE? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Unified Contact Center is not able to resolve the host name of Cisco Unified Communications Manager. B. A referenced CTI Route Point is not associated with the JTAPI user. C. The JTAPI user password is not correct. D. There is an error in one of the scripts being loaded. E. The CTI Manager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Correct Answer: BD /Reference: Refer to the Cisco Unified CCX trace files to determine what did not initialize. Verify that all CTI ports and CTI route points are associated with the JTAPI user in Cisco Unified CM. Verify that the Cisco Unified CM and JTAPI configuration IP addresses match. Verify that the Cisco Unified CM JTAPI user has control of all the CTI ports and CTI route points. Verify that the application file was uploaded to the repository using the Repository Manager. QUESTION 16 Which three of these are mandatory sub-commands of the call-manager-fallback command and will help an IP phone register to an IOS router in SRST mode? (Choose three.) A. access-code B. dialplan-pattern C. ip source-address D. keepalive E. max-dn F. max-ephones

12 Correct Answer: CEF /Reference: QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit. You are debugging a problem on a SIP network and have run the debug ccsip messages command. One of the messages returned is shown in the exhibit. What information will the server return to the caller? A. the acceptable media type B. a list of acceptable media types C. a list of acceptable formats D. a correct directory number E. an acceptable language code Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 18 Which type of SIP responses would indicate that a server encountered an error in attempting to complete a SIP request? A. 1xx B. 3xx C. 4xx D. 5xx E. 6xx Correct Answer: D /Reference:

13 5xx Server Failure Responses 500 Server Internal Error 501 Not Implemented: The SIP request method is not implemented here 502 Bad Gateway 503 Service Unavailable 504 Server Time-out 505 Version Not Supported: The server does not support this version of the SIP protocol 513 Message Too Large 580 Precondition Failure QUESTION To hide its identity when initiating calls, SIP Phone B requests that Server B place its calls for it. What kind of device is Server B? A. proxy B. redirect C. registrar D. user agent client E. user agent server Correct Answer: A /Reference: Proxy Server: The proxy server is an intermediary entity that acts as both a server and a client for the purpose of making requests on behalf of other clients. A proxy server primarily plays the role of routing, meaning that its job is to ensure that a request is sent to another entity closer to the targeted user. Proxies are also useful for enforcing policy (for example, making sure a user is allowed to make a call). A proxy interprets, and, if necessary, rewrites specific parts of a request message before forwarding it.

14 QUESTION 20 Which of the following three messages could be sent by the UAC in response to the 180 Ringing? (Choose three.) A. PRACK B. ACK C. BYE D. CANCEL E. INVITE Correct Answer: ABD /Reference:

15 technologies_configuration_guide_chapter09186a00800eadfa.html (Prack is not listed here but the others make no sense and prack is known according to google etc) QUESTION 21 Which three attributes correctly describe aspects of MGCP? (Choose three.) A. peer-to-peer B. Master/Slave C. call preservation on gateway failover one Cisco Unified Communications Manager server to another D. communication with Cisco Unified Communications Manager handled via a proxy server E. centralized dial plan management F. intelligent endpoints Correct Answer: BCE

16 /Reference: MGCP (defined under RFC 2705) is a master/slave protocol that allows a call control device (such as Cisco CallManager) to take control of a specific port on a gateway. This has the advantage of centralized gateway administration and provides for largely scalable IP Telephony solutions. With this protocol, the Cisco CallManager knows and controls the state of each individual port on the gateway. It allows complete control of the dial plan Cisco CallManager, and gives CallManager per-port control of connections to the public switched telephone network (PSTN), legacy PBX, voice mail systems, plain old telephone service (POTS) phones, and so forth. This is implemented with the use of a series of plain-text commands sent over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 2427 between the Cisco CallManager and the gateway. A list of the possible commands and their functions is provided later in this document. Call preservation calls are maintained during failover and failback QUESTION 22 In a VoIP deployment, which two protocols satisfy the following three requirements? (Choose two.) Requirement 1: the protocol has a mechanism for a centralized dial-plan Requirement 2: the endpoints are considered to be unintelligent Requirement 3: the protocol is text-based A. SIP B. H.323 C. MGCP D. SCCP Correct Answer: CD /Reference: QUESTION 23 When implementing PRI backhaul for an MGCP gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager, the Q.921 data-link protocol is terminated on which device? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. MGCP gateway C. signaling link terminal D. the IP end device, such as an IP phone Correct Answer: B /Reference:

17 MGCP PRI backhaul terminates all ISDN PRI Layer 2 (Q.921) signaling functions on the MGCP gateway while, at the same time, packaging all the ISDN PRI Layer 3 (Q.931) signaling information into packets for transmission to Cisco Unified Communications Manager through an IP tunnel over a TCP connection. This ensures the integrity of the Q.931 signaling information that passes through the network for managing IP telephony devices. A rich set of user-side and network-side ISDN PRI calling functions is supported by MGCP PRI backhaul. QUESTION 24 What occurs if the system clocks are not synchronized between the sender and receiver of an RTP stream? A. Packets can be placed in sequence but jitter cannot be compensated for. B. Packets cannot be reordered, because sequence and jitter cannot be compensated for. C. Jitter can be compensated for, but packets cannot be reordered if they arrive out of sequence. D. Packets may be reordered and jitter may be compensated for, because the timestamp is not related to the system time. E. When the RTP stream is opened, the sender and receiver synchronize their clocks before the stream commences so that packet sequencing and dejitter will function correctly. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 25 On which gateway or gatekeeper is the IOS command call-rsvp-sync resv-timer 10 used to set the timer? A. originating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds B. originating and terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds C. terminating VoIP gateway for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds D. VoIP gatekeeper for completing RSVP reservation setups in 10 seconds Correct Answer: C /Reference: A timer can be set by using the call rsvp-sync serv-timer command to limit the number of seconds that the terminating gateway waits for bandwidth reservation setup before proceeding with the call setup or releasing the call, depending on the configured QoS level in the dial peers. QUESTION 26 If the bandwidth total default 64 command is configured in a gatekeeper, then what is true of that gatekeeper? A. it will admit up to 64 calls, regardless of codec used B. it will not admit any calls because all calls initially account of 128 kb/s C. it will admit a minimum of four calls using the G.729 codec D. it will admit up to four calls using the G.729 codec

18 E. it will admit a G.711 call in one direction only, since 64 is half of 128 kb/s Correct Answer: D /Reference: G729 = 8kbit/sec. x 2 (gatekeeper takes double bandwith to compensate for in/out bound). 64 / 16 = 4 total calls. QUESTION 27 If enabled, the RSVP for LLQ feature will assign which two types of flows to the priority queue? (Choose two.) A. all RSVP bandwidth requests B. voice flows generated Cisco IOS applications C. voice flows generated third-party applications, such as Microsoft NetMeeting D. all traffic marked DSCP EF E. all traffic marked CoS 5 Correct Answer: BC /Reference: RSVP is a network-control protocol that provides a means for reserving network resources primarily bandwidth to guarantee that applications sending end-to-end across networks achieve the desired QoS. RSVP enables real-time traffic (which includes voice flows) to reserve resources necessary for low latency and bandwidth guarantees. Voice traffic has stringent delay and jitter requirements. It must have very low delay and minimal jitter per hop to avoid degradation of end-to-end QoS. This requirement calls for an efficient queueing implementation, such as low latency queueing (LLQ), that can service voice traffic at almost strict priority in order to minimize delay and jitter. RSVP uses WFQ to provide fairness among flows and to assign a low weight to a packet to attain priority. However, the preferential treatment provided by RSVP is insufficient to minimize the jitter because of the nature of the queueing algorithm itself. As a result, the low latency and jitter requirements of voice flows might not be met in the prior implementation of RSVP and WFQ. RSVP provides admission control. However, to provide the bandwidth and delay guarantees for voice traffic and get admission control, RSVP must work with LLQ. The RSVP Support for LLQ feature allows RSVP to classify voice flows and queue them into the priority queue within the LLQ system while simultaneously providing reservations for nonvoice flows by getting a reserved queue QUESTION 28 Which of these features are supported in RSVP Support for LLQ? (Choose three.) A. LLQ Support on Tunnels B. Guaranteed Quality of Service

19 C. Reserve resources for Low Latency and bandwidth guarantees D. LLQ on Frame Relay and ATM PVCs E. Controlled-Load Network Element Service Correct Answer: BCE /Reference: RFC 221, Controlled-Load Network Element Service RFC 2212, Specification of Guaranteed Quality of Service Bandwidth guarantee. The RSVP reservation, if accepted, will guarantee that those reserved resources will continue to be available while the reservation is in place. QUESTION 29 Users are complaining that the music on hold marketing files for this month are not being played when users are placed on hold. Which three of these do you need to verify? (Choose three.) A. the IP voice media streaming application has been stopped and restarted B. a new directory has been created for the new media files C. users have selected the correct MoH files for customer calls D. the new music files are in the correct format to be used with Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. the location of the new music files is what the MoH server expects Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: Users cannot specify the MOH file and a new directory is not required. Only the above is correct. QUESTION 30 Which of these statements correctly describes the logic for selecting MoH servers and MoH audio streams? A. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold. B. The audio stream and audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold. C. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold, and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold. D. The audio stream will be selected according to the configuration of the phone being placed on hold and the audio server used will be selected according to the configuration of the phone which is being used to place a caller on hold. Correct Answer: C /Reference:

20 QUESTION 31 Which two conditions will result in an H.323 gatekeeper receiving an ARQ a registered H.323 endpoint? (Choose two.) A. A remote zone endpoint initiates a call. B. A local zone endpoint requests permission to admit an incoming call. C. A remote zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity. D. A remote zone gatekeeper initiates a call. E. A local zone endpoint initiates a call. F. A local zone endpoint sends keepalive to ensure registration continuity. Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 32 Two H.323 gateways are engaged in an active call. How many RTP and RTCP packet streams exist between these two gateways? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 33 On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message is initiated by the gateway? A. RQNT B. NTFY C. EPCF D. CRCX E. SETUP Correct Answer: B /Reference:

21 EPCF RQNT NTFY CRCX MDCX DLCX AUEP AUCX RSIP EndpointConfiguration specifies the encoding of the signals that will be received by the endpoint. NotificationRequest requests the gateway to send notifications upon the occurrence of specified events in an endpoint. Notify sent by the gateway in compliance with RQNT when a triggering event occurs. CreateConnection creates a connection between two endpoints. ModifyConnection modifies the characteristics of a gateway's "view" of a connection. This "view" of the call includes both the local connection descriptor as well as the remote connection descriptor. DeleteConnection ( the Call Agent) terminates a connection. As a side effect, it collects statistics on the execution of the connection. DeleteConnection ( the gateway) issued by the media gateway to clear a connection, for example because it has lost the resource associated with the connection, or because it has detected that the endpoint no longer is capable or willing to send or receive voice. DeleteConnection (multiple connections, the Call Agent) used by the Call Agent to delete multiple connections at the same time. The command can be used to delete all connections that relate to a Call for an endpoint or terminate in a given endpoint. AuditEndpoint used by the call agent to find out the status of a given endpoint. AuditConnection used by the Call Agent to retrieve the parameters attached to a connection. RestartInProgress used by the gateway to signal that an endpoint, or a group of endpoints, is put in-service or out-of-service. products_maintenance_guide_chapter09186a c.html#xtocid10 QUESTION 34 On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which four MGCP messages are initiated by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose four.) A. AUEP B. MDCX C. RQNT D. NTFY E. RSIP F. CRCX Correct Answer: ABCF /Reference: EPCF RQNT NTFY CRCX EndpointConfiguration specifies the encoding of the signals that will be received by the endpoint. NotificationRequest requests the gateway to send notifications upon the occurrence of specified events in an endpoint. Notify sent by the gateway in compliance with RQNT when a triggering event occurs. CreateConnection creates a connection between two endpoints.

22 MDCX DLCX AUEP AUCX RSIP ModifyConnection modifies the characteristics of a gateway's "view" of a connection. This "view" of the call includes both the local connection descriptor as well as the remote connection descriptor. DeleteConnection ( the Call Agent) terminates a connection. As a side effect, it collects statistics on the execution of the connection. DeleteConnection ( the gateway) issued by the media gateway to clear a connection, for example because it has lost the resource associated with the connection, or because it has detected that the endpoint no longer is capable or willing to send or receive voice. DeleteConnection (multiple connections, the Call Agent) used by the Call Agent to delete multiple connections at the same time. The command can be used to delete all connections that relate to a Call for an endpoint or terminate in a given endpoint. AuditEndpoint used by the call agent to find out the status of a given endpoint. AuditConnection used by the Call Agent to retrieve the parameters attached to a connection. RestartInProgress used by the gateway to signal that an endpoint, or a group of endpoints, is put in-service or out-of-service. products_maintenance_guide_chapter09186a c.html#xtocid10 QUESTION 35 On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which MGCP message could be initiated by either Cisco Unified Communications Manager or the gateway? A. CRCX B. RQNT C. DLCX D. AUEP E. RSIP Correct Answer: C /Reference: EPCF RQNT NTFY CRCX MDCX DLCX EndpointConfiguration specifies the encoding of the signals that will be received by the endpoint. NotificationRequest requests the gateway to send notifications upon the occurrence of specified events in an endpoint. Notify sent by the gateway in compliance with RQNT when a triggering event occurs. CreateConnection creates a connection between two endpoints. ModifyConnection modifies the characteristics of a gateway's "view" of a connection. This "view" of the call includes both the local connection descriptor as well as the remote connection descriptor. DeleteConnection ( the Call Agent) terminates a connection. As a side effect, it collects statistics on the execution of the connection. DeleteConnection ( the gateway) issued by the media gateway to clear a connection, for example because it has lost the resource associated with the connection, or because it has detected that the endpoint no longer is capable or willing to send or receive voice. DeleteConnection (multiple connections, the Call Agent) used by the Call Agent to delete

23 multiple connections at the same time. The command can be used to delete all connections that relate to a Call for an endpoint or terminate in a given endpoint. AUEP AUCX RSIP AuditEndpoint used by the call agent to find out the status of a given endpoint. AuditConnection used by the Call Agent to retrieve the parameters attached to a connection. RestartInProgress used by the gateway to signal that an endpoint, or a group of endpoints, is put in-service or out-of-service. products_maintenance_guide_chapter09186a c.html#xtocid10 QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 37 Refer to the exhibit.

24 What is the maximum number of inbound calls to ephone 1 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 E. 7 Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 38 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of calls that are supported on ephone 2? A. 3 B. 4

25 C. 5 D. 6 E. 8 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 39 Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of inbound calls to 2001 before a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express system returns a user busy tone to any additional calls? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 7 E. 8 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 40 Which two analog voice interfaces support ground-start? (Choose two.) A. FXS B. E&M Type I C. E&M Type II D. E&M Type IV E. FXO

26 Correct Answer: AE /Reference: Also, Cisco only supports E&M Type 1-3 and 5. NOT 4. QUESTION 41 Which signaling method cannot solve the FXO disconnect problem? A. power denial B. tone-based supervisory disconnect C. pulse dial D. ground-start signaling E. battery reversal Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 42 Which three signaling types are not used by analog E&M circuits as start dial supervision protocols? (Choose three.) A. delay dial B. wink-start C. ground-start D. wink-start Feature Group D E. immediate-start F. pulse dial Correct Answer: CDF /Reference: On E&M circuits, the three main Start Dial Supervision protocols are: Immediate Start Wink Start Delay Dial

27 QUESTION 43 Which three are valid T1 CAS types? (Choose three.) A. E&M signaling B. semicompelled signaling C. loop-start signaling D. line signaling E. Group 1 signaling F. ground-start signaling Correct Answer: ACF /Reference: E&M Signaling is typically used for trunk lines. The signaling paths are known as the E-lead and the M-lead. Descriptions such as Ear and Mouth were adopted to help field personnel determine the direction of a signal in a wire. E&M connections routers to telephone switches or to PBXs are preferable to FXS/FXO connections because E&M provides better answer and disconnect supervision. Loopstart signaling is one of the simplest forms of CAS signaling. When a handset is picked up (the telephone goes off-hook), this action closes the circuit that draws current the telephone company CO and indicates a change in status, which signals the CO to provide dial tone. An incoming call is signaled the CO to the handset by sending a signal in a standard on/off pattern, which causes the telephone to ring. Groundstart signaling is very similar to loopstart signaling in many regards. It works by using ground and current detectors that allow the network to indicate off-hook or seizure of an incoming call independent of the ringing signal and allow for positive recognition of connects and disconnects. For this reason, ground start signaling is typically used on trunk lines between PBXs and in businesses where call volume on loop start lines can result in glare. QUESTION 44 Which R2 signaling element passes address information such as calling- and called-party numbers? A. pulse signaling B. delay dial signaling C. line signaling D. interregister signaling E. out-of-band signaling Correct Answer: D /Reference: Interregister Signaling (Call Setup Control Signals) The concept of address signaling in R2 is slightly different than that used in other CAS systems. In R2 signaling, the exchanges are considered registers and the signaling between these exchanges is called interregister signaling. Interregister signaling uses forward and backward in-band multifrequency signals in each time slot to transfer called and calling party numbers, as well as the calling party category.

28 QUESTION 45 How many frames are contained in one multiframe within an SF format? A. 4 B. 8 C. 15 D. 16 E. 30 F. 32 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 46 How many channels on a voice E1 circuit are used to carry PCM-encoded voice traffic? A. 16 B. 28 C. 29 D. 30 E. 31 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 47 According to the IEEE 802.3af PoE standard, what is the maximum power (in watts) that is delivered to a power-consuming device? A. 6.3 B C D. 20 E F Correct Answer: C /Reference:

29 The original IEEE 802.3af-2003[2] PoE standard provides up to 15.4 W of DC power (minimum 44 V DC and 350 ma) to each device. Only W is assured to be available at the powered device as some power is dissipated in the cable. QUESTION 48 What is the complete name of LLDP-MED, an enhancement to the vendor-neutral LLDP that is supported on Cisco switches? A. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Endpoint Discovery B. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Delivery C. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Media Enhancement Discovery D. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Enhancement Delivery E. Link Layer Discovery Protocol-Multiple Endpoint Discovery Correct Answer: A /Reference: Media Endpoint Discovery is an enhancement of LLDP, known as LLDP-MED, that provides the following facilities: QUESTION 49 Which of these is not a valid switchback method for SCCP hardware conference bridges? A. immediate B. never C. graceful D. guard E. uptime Correct Answer: B /Reference: switchback method {graceful guard [timeout-value] immediate uptime uptime-value} QUESTION 50 Which two are valid switchover methods for SCCP hardware conference bridges? (Choose two.) A. immediate B. guard

30 C. uptime delay D. schedule time E. graceful F. never Correct Answer: AE /Reference: switchback method {graceful guard [timeout-value] immediate uptime uptime-value} QUESTION 51 What is the default switchback method for an SCCP hardware transcoder when a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager becomes available again? A. graceful B. immediate C. uptime D. never E. guard Correct Answer: E /Reference: Router(config-sccp-ccm)# switchback method graceful (Optional) Sets the switchback method to use when the primary or higher priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager becomes available again. Default is guard, with a timeout value of 7200 seconds. QUESTION 52 Which telephony signaling type cannot be configured for a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. T1 PRI B. analog FXO C. analog E&M D. T1 CAS E&M delay dial E. ISDN BRI Correct Answer: C

31 /Reference: The following types of interfaces on the gateway are supported: FXS analog interfaces For connecting to the PSTN or analog phones FXO analog interfaces For connecting to the PSTN or PBXs T1 CAS digital interfaces For connecting to the PSTN or PBXs T1 and E1 PRI digital interfaces For connecting to PBXs and central offices (COs) QUESTION 53 Which two codecs provide built-in VAD? (Choose two.) A. G.711 mu-law B. G K C. G Annex A D. G.726 E. G.729 F. G.729 Annex B Correct Answer: CF /Reference: There are two versions of G called Annex-A and non Annex-A. These versions do not interoperate. G Annex-A includes a built-in IETF VAD algorithm and CNG. G.729 Annex-B codec provides built-in IETF voice activity detection (VAD) and Comfort Noise Generation (CNG). QUESTION 54 Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct? A. G.729 and G.729A are both high-complexity codecs. B. G.729A and G.729B both provide built-in VAD. C. G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a high-complexity codec. D. G.729 is a high-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec. E. G.729 is a low-complexity codec, while G.729A is a medium-complexity codec. Correct Answer: D /Reference: Medium Complexity (4 calls / dsp) High Complexity ( 2 calls / dsp) G.711 (a-law and m -law) G.728

32 G.726 (all versions) G.723 (all versions) G.729a, G.729ab (G.729a AnnexB) Fax-relay G.729, G.729b (G.729-AnnexB) Fax-relay QUESTION 55 Which three codecs are considered to have medium complexity on Cisco IOS voice gateways? (Choose three.) A. G.711 a-law B. G.711 mu-law C. G.723 D. G.728 E. G.729 F. G.729 Annex A with Annex B Correct Answer: ABF /Reference: Medium Complexity (4 calls / dsp) High Complexity ( 2 calls / dsp) G.711 (a-law and m -law) G.728 G.726 (all versions) G.723 (all versions) G.729a, G.729ab (G.729a AnnexB) Fax-relay G.729, G.729b (G.729-AnnexB) Fax-relay QUESTION 56 Which three codecs are considered to have high complexity on Cisco IOS voice gateways? (Choose three.) A. G.711 a-law B. G.711 mu-law C. G.723 D. G.728 E. G.729 F. G.729 Annex B Correct Answer: CDF

33 /Reference: Medium Complexity (4 calls / dsp) High Complexity ( 2 calls / dsp) G.711 (a-law and m -law) G.728 G.726 (all versions) G.723 (all versions) G.729a, G.729ab (G.729a AnnexB) Fax-relay G.729, G.729b (G.729-AnnexB) Fax-relay QUESTION 57 Which statement about the G.729 codec is correct? A. G.729 Annex A is a high-complexity codec. B. G.729 Annex A and G.729 do not interoperate with each other. C. G.729 Annex A with Annex B is a pre-ietf-standard format. D. G.729 Annex A with Annex B and G.729 Annex B can interoperate with each other only through a transcoder. E. The Cisco IOS configuration option of "g729r8" uses G.729 Annex A when medium complexity is defined on the voice card. Correct Answer: E /Reference: Medium Complexity (4 calls / dsp) High Complexity ( 2 calls / dsp) G.711 (a-law and m -law) G.728 G.726 (all versions) G.723 (all versions) G.729a, G.729ab (G.729a AnnexB) Fax-relay G.729, G.729b (G.729-AnnexB) Fax-relay QUESTION 58 On a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway, what is the maximum configurable length of time for a scheduled switchback to a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager?

34 A. 6 hours B. 12 hours C. 18 hours D. 24 hours E. 48 hours Correct Answer: D /Reference: #ccm-manager switchback uptime-delay? <1-1440> Delay time (minutes) 1440/60 = 24 QUESTION 59 Which of these is an invalid switchback method for a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway in case a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager returns to active service? A. guard B. graceful C. immediate D. schedule-time E. uptime delay Correct Answer: A /Reference: ccm-manager switchback {graceful immediate schedule-time hh:mm uptime-delay minutes} QUESTION 60 What is the default switchback method for a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway when a higher-priority Cisco Unified Communications Manager becomes available again? A. graceful B. immediate C. uptime delay D. never E. schedule time Correct Answer: A

35 /Reference: Configures switchback mode for returning control to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Default is graceful. QUESTION 61 Which statement about the Media Resource Group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct? A. Different types of media resources cannot be grouped into the same Media Resource Group. B. A Media Resource Group contains a prioritized list of media resources. C. The default Media Resource Group is defined in the service parameters of Cisco Unified Communications Manager. D. Once a media resource is associated with a Media Resource Group, it is no longer eligible to be associated with another Media Resource Group. E. The Media Resource Group configuration page allows administrators to choose whether to use multicast for MOH audio. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 62 Which statement about MRGL on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect? A. MRGL can be assigned to devices at the device level, device pool level, or both. B. MRGL contains a prioritized list of Media Resource Groups. C. Media resources that are not contained in any Media Resource Groups are not used by MRGL. D. MRGL can contain a single Media Resource Group. E. When a call is placed on hold, the MRGL of the device that put the call on hold determines which MOH server is used to play music to the held device. Correct Answer: C /Reference: The last MRGL is the default MRGL. A media resource that is not assigned to an MRG is automatically assigned to the default MRGL. The default MRGL is always searched and it is the last resort if no resources are available in the device-based MRGL and the device pool MRGL or if no MRGLs are configured at any level.

36 QUESTION 63 Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server A and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server B are in the same cluster. The cluster has a total of four registered conference bridges: two software conference bridges (one each server) and two Cisco IOS hardware conference bridges. All four conference bridges are registered to Server B as the primary call-processing node and Server A as the backup. If an administrator accidentally deactivated the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application service on Server B, what will happen to the conference resources in the cluster? A. All four conference bridges will register to Server A. B. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will register to Server A. C. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will remain registered to Server B. D. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will remain registered to Server B. E. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will register to Server A. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 64 Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server A and Cisco Unified Communications Manager Server B are in the same cluster. The cluster has a total of four registered conference bridges: two software conference bridges (one each server) and two Cisco IOS hardware conference bridges. All four conference bridges are registered to Server B as the primary call-processing node and Server A as the backup. If an administrator accidentally deactivated the Cisco CallManager service on Server B, what will happen to the conference resources in the cluster? A. All four conference bridges will register to Server A. B. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will register to Server A. C. The Server B software bridge will deregister; the other three bridges will remain registered to Server B. D. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will remain registered to Server B. E. Both software bridges will deregister, and both hardware bridges will register to Server A. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 65 Which string is not a valid route pattern on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. 123@ B. 123.

37 C. 123* D. 123$ E. 123? Correct Answer: D /Reference: X!? + [ ] - ^. * # Description The at symbol (@) wildcard matches all NANP numbers. Each route pattern can have only wildcard. The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. It must be the first first character following the opening bracket ([). Each route pattern can have only one ^ character. The dot (.) character is used as a delimiter to separate the Cisco CallManager access code the directory number. Use this special character, with the discard digits instructions, to strip off the Cisco CallManager access code before sending the number to an adjacent system. Each route pattern can have only one. character. The asterisk (*) character can provide an extra digit for special dialed numbers. The octothorpe (#) character generally identifies the end of the dialing sequence. The # character must be the last character in the pattern. Examples The route pattern 9.@ routes or blocks all numbers recognized by the NANP. The following route patterns examples show NANP numbers encompassed by wildcard: The route pattern 9XXX routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9000 through The route pattern 91! routes or blocks all numbers in the range 910 through The route pattern 91X? routes or blocks all numbers in the range 91 through The route pattern 91X+ routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9100 through The route pattern [012345] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [^0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern 9.@ identifies the initial 9 as the Cisco CallManager access code in an NANP call. You can configure the route pattern *411 to provide access to the internal operator for directory assistance. The route pattern # routes or blocks an international number dialed within the NANP. The # character after the last 5 identifies

38 this as the last digit in the sequence. QUESTION 66 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents zero or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard? A.! B. + C. * D.. E.? Correct Answer: E /Reference: X!? + [ ] - ^. Description The at symbol (@) wildcard matches all NANP numbers. Each route pattern can have only wildcard. The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. It must be the first first character following the opening bracket ([). Each route pattern can have only one ^ character. The dot (.) character is used as a delimiter to separate the Cisco CallManager access code Examples The route pattern 9.@ routes or blocks all numbers recognized by the NANP. The following route patterns examples show NANP numbers encompassed by wildcard: The route pattern 9XXX routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9000 through The route pattern 91! routes or blocks all numbers in the range 910 through The route pattern 91X? routes or blocks all numbers in the range 91 through The route pattern 91X+ routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9100 through The route pattern [012345] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [^0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern 9.@ identifies the initial 9 as the Cisco CallManager access code in an NANP call.

39 * # the directory number. Use this special character, with the discard digits instructions, to strip off the Cisco CallManager access code before sending the number to an adjacent system. Each route pattern can have only one. character. The asterisk (*) character can provide an extra digit for special dialed numbers. The octothorpe (#) character generally identifies the end of the dialing sequence. The # character must be the last character in the pattern. You can configure the route pattern *411 to provide access to the internal operator for directory assistance. The route pattern # routes or blocks an international number dialed within the NANP. The # character after the last 5 identifies this as the last digit in the sequence. QUESTION 67 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents one or more occurrences of digits in the range of zero to nine? A.! B. + C. * D.. E.? Correct Answer: A /Reference: X!? + Description The at symbol (@) wildcard matches all NANP numbers. Each route pattern can have only wildcard. The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range 0 through 9. The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. Examples The route pattern 9.@ routes or blocks all numbers recognized by the NANP. The following route patterns examples show NANP numbers encompassed by wildcard: The route pattern 9XXX routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9000 through The route pattern 91! routes or blocks all numbers in the range 910 through The route pattern 91X? routes or blocks all numbers in the range 91 through The route pattern 91X+ routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9100 through

40 [ ] - ^. * # The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. It must be the first first character following the opening bracket ([). Each route pattern can have only one ^ character. The dot (.) character is used as a delimiter to separate the Cisco CallManager access code the directory number. Use this special character, with the discard digits instructions, to strip off the Cisco CallManager access code before sending the number to an adjacent system. Each route pattern can have only one. character. The asterisk (*) character can provide an extra digit for special dialed numbers. The octothorpe (#) character generally identifies the end of the dialing sequence. The # character must be the last character in the pattern. The route pattern [012345] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [^0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern 9.@ identifies the initial 9 as the Cisco CallManager access code in an NANP call. You can configure the route pattern *411 to provide access to the internal operator for directory assistance. The route pattern # routes or blocks an international number dialed within the NANP. The # character after the last 5 identifies this as the last digit in the sequence. QUESTION 68 Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager route pattern character represents one or more occurrences of the previous digit or wildcard? A.! B. + C. * D.. E.? Correct Answer: B /Reference: Description The at symbol (@) wildcard matches all NANP numbers. Each route pattern can have only wildcard. The X wildcard matches any single digit in the range Examples The route pattern 9.@ routes or blocks all numbers recognized by the NANP. The following route patterns examples show NANP numbers encompassed by wildcard: The route pattern 9XXX routes or blocks all

41 X 0 through 9. numbers in the range 9000 through 9999.!? + [ ] - ^. * # The exclamation point (!) wildcard matches one or more digits in the range 0 through 9. The question mark (?) wildcard matches zero or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The plus sign (+) wildcard matches one or more occurrences of the preceding digit or wildcard value. The square bracket ([ ]) characters enclose a range of values. The hyphen (-) character, used with the square brackets, denotes a range of values. The circumflex (^) character, used with the square brackets, negates a range of values. It must be the first first character following the opening bracket ([). Each route pattern can have only one ^ character. The dot (.) character is used as a delimiter to separate the Cisco CallManager access code the directory number. Use this special character, with the discard digits instructions, to strip off the Cisco CallManager access code before sending the number to an adjacent system. Each route pattern can have only one. character. The asterisk (*) character can provide an extra digit for special dialed numbers. The octothorpe (#) character generally identifies the end of the dialing sequence. The # character must be the last character in the pattern. The route pattern 91! routes or blocks all numbers in the range 910 through The route pattern 91X? routes or blocks all numbers in the range 91 through The route pattern 91X+ routes or blocks all numbers in the range 9100 through The route pattern [012345] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern [^0-5] routes or blocks all numbers in the range through The route pattern 9.@ identifies the initial 9 as the Cisco CallManager access code in an NANP call. You can configure the route pattern *411 to provide access to the internal operator for directory assistance. The route pattern # routes or blocks an international number dialed within the NANP. The # character after the last 5 identifies this as the last digit in the sequence. QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. Incoming calls that use this FXO port are hearing two rings before the destination endpoint, 1001, begins to ring. What is a possible cause for this behavior? A. connection plar opx in the current configuration is wrong; it should be replaced with connection plar. B is configured for delayed ring. C. Caller ID is not provisioned by the telephone company on this FXO line.

42 D. FXO ports always ring twice before ringing the destination endpoint. Correct Answer: C /Reference: the two ring delay is for the caller ID to be received. This is a very common standards industry practice. Without two rings first, the customer may not see the caller id right away. QUESTION 70 What is the default method of handling an H.323 connection unknown devices on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager accepts incoming H.323 connections unknown devices. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager ignores incoming H.323 connections unknown devices. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by sending an H.225 reject. D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by sending an H.225 disconnect. E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by closing the TCP socket. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 71 What is the default method of handling an H.323 connection unknown devices on a Cisco IOS H.323 gateway? A. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway accepts incoming H.323 connections unknown devices. B. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway ignores incoming H.323 connections unknown devices. C. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by sending an H.225 reject. D. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by sending an H.225 disconnect. E. A Cisco IOS H.323 gateway rejects incoming H.323 connections unknown devices by closing the TCP socket. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 72

43 An H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway? A. No Route To Destination B. Normal Call Clearing C. Subscriber Absent D. User Busy E. Network Busy Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 73 When an H.225 call setup arrives at Cisco Unified Communications Manager for an IP phone directory number with a partition that is not reachable by the H.323 gateway calling search space, which H.225 disconnect reason code will be sent to the originating H.323 gateway? A. No Route To Destination B. Unallocated (Unassigned) Number C. Number Unreachable D. Number Available But Out of Reach E. Network Busy Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 74 When a call arrives the PSTN on a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, destined to an IP phone directory number with a partition that is not reachable by the MGCP gateway calling search space, which event will take place? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will send the call to the Call Forward Busy destination that is configured on the IP phone. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP DLCX message. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "No Route To Destination". D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "Unallocated (Unassigned) Number". E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a cause code of 420, which means "Bad Extension". Correct Answer: D

44 /Reference: QUESTION 75 A call arrives the PSTN on a Cisco IOS MGCP PRI gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, destined for a directory number on an IP phone that is engaged in an active conversation. If call waiting is disabled for this directory number and none of the Call Forward settings are defined, which event will take place? A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP RSIP message. B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with an MGCP DLCX message with a cause of "Busy". C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "User Busy". D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a Q.931 cause of "Temporary Failure". E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disconnect the call with a cause code of 486, which means "Busy Here". Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 76 How many bits in an 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame are used for 802.1p priority? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 Correct Answer: A /Reference: Eight different classes of service are available as expressed through the 3-bit PCP field in an IEEE 802.1Q header added to the frame. The way traffic is treated when assigned to any particular class is undefined and left to the implementation. The IEEE however has made some broad recommendations: PCP Network priority Acronym Traffic characteristics 1 0 (lowest) BK Background 0 1 BE Best Effort 2 2 EE Excellent Effort 3 3 CA Critical Applications 4 4 VI Video, < 100 ms latency 5 5 VO Voice, < 10 ms latency 6 6 IC Internetwork Control 7 7 (highest) NC Network Control Note that the above recommendations were revised in IEEE 802.1Q-2005 and differ the original recommendations found in IEEE 802.1D-2004.

45 QUESTION 77 Refer to the exhibit. In this 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame, which block of bits, labeled A, B, C, and D, is used as TPID? A. A B. B C. C D. D Correct Answer: A /Reference: Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID): a 16-bit field set to a value of 0x8100 in order to identify the frame as an IEEE 802.1Q-tagged frame. This field is located at the same position as the EtherType/Length field in untagged frames, and is thus used to distinguish the frame untagged frames. Priority Code Point (PCP): a 3-bit field which refers to the IEEE 802.1p priority. It indicates the frame priority level. Values are 0 (best effort) to 7 (highest); 1 represents the lowest priority. These values can be used to prioritize different classes of traffic (voice, video, data, etc.). See also Class of Service or CoS. Canonical Format Indicator (CFI): a 1-bit field. If the value of this field is 1, the MAC address is in noncanonical format. If the value is 0, the MAC address is in canonical format. It is always set to zero for Ethernet switches. CFI is used for compatibility between Ethernet and Token Ring networks. If a frame received at an Ethernet port has a CFI set to 1, then that frame should not be bridged to an untagged port. VLAN Identifier (VID): a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs. The reserved value 0x000 indicates that the frame does not belong to any VLAN; in this case, the 802.1Q tag specifies only a priority and is referred to as a priority tag. On bridges, VLAN 1 (the default VLAN ID) is often reserved for a management VLAN; this is vendor-specific. QUESTION 78 Refer to the exhibit.

46 In this 802.1Q tagged Ethernet frame, which block of bits, labeled A, B, C, and D, is used as VID? A. A B. B C. C D. D Correct Answer: D /Reference: Tag Protocol Identifier (TPID): a 16-bit field set to a value of 0x8100 in order to identify the frame as an IEEE 802.1Q-tagged frame. This field is located at the same position as the EtherType/Length field in untagged frames, and is thus used to distinguish the frame untagged frames. Priority Code Point (PCP): a 3-bit field which refers to the IEEE 802.1p priority. It indicates the frame priority level. Values are 0 (best effort) to 7 (highest); 1 represents the lowest priority. These values can be used to prioritize different classes of traffic (voice, video, data, etc.). See also Class of Service or CoS. Canonical Format Indicator (CFI): a 1-bit field. If the value of this field is 1, the MAC address is in noncanonical format. If the value is 0, the MAC address is in canonical format. It is always set to zero for Ethernet switches. CFI is used for compatibility between Ethernet and Token Ring networks. If a frame received at an Ethernet port has a CFI set to 1, then that frame should not be bridged to an untagged port. VLAN Identifier (VID): a 12-bit field specifying the VLAN to which the frame belongs. The hexadecimal values of 0x000 and 0xFFF are reserved. All other values may be used as VLAN identifiers, allowing up to 4,094 VLANs. The reserved value 0x000 indicates that the frame does not belong to any VLAN; in this case, the 802.1Q tag specifies only a priority and is referred to as a priority tag. On bridges, VLAN 1 (the default VLAN ID) is often reserved for a management VLAN; this is vendor-specific. QUESTION 79 Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for ECN? A. bits 0, 1

47 B. bits 0, 1, 2 C. bits 2, 3, 4 D. bits 5, 6, 7 Correct Answer: A /Reference: Seems they have it the other way round here. Matter of fact, ECN is only 2 bits, so only valid answer is A QUESTION 80 Refer to the exhibit. In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for DSCP? A. bits 0 to 5 B. bits 2 to 7 C. bits 3 to 7 D. bits 5 to 7 Correct Answer: B /Reference: Numbers are reversedm, but DSCP bits are 6 in total, so only answer B can be correct QUESTION 81 Refer to the exhibit.

48 In this IPv4 packet, which bits in the ToS byte are used for IP precedence? A. bits 0 to 2 B. bits 2 to 4 C. bits 4 to 7 D. bits 5 to 7 Correct Answer: D /Reference: 3 bits, so answer D must be correct QUESTION 82 Your client has a business requirement that mandates exact DTMF durations being passed end- to-end across an H.323 VoIP infrastructure. Which two DTMF relay methods meet the client requirement? (Choose two.) A. Cisco RTP B. H.245 signal C. H.245 alphanumeric D. RTP-NTE E. H.225 Notify F. in-band voice Correct Answer: BD /Reference: The "h245-signal" option relays a more accurate representation of a DTMF digit than the "h245-alphanumeric" option, in that tone duration information is included along with the digit value. The "h245-alphanumeric" option simply relays DTMF tones as ASCII characters.there is no duration information associated with tones in this mode RTP-NTE equals RFC2833 and duration information is kept. Source

49 QUESTION 83 Cisco Unified Communications Manager generates different types of alarms to indicate system- or processrelated problems. "Code Yellow" is one of these alarms. Which of these system or process exceptions will trigger a Code Yellow alarm on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. when a hard drive fails B. when there is a memory leak C. when the Cisco Unified Communications Manager application generates a core dump D. when a database replication problem arises E. when calls are throttled because of an unacceptably high delay in call handling Correct Answer: E /Reference: Call throttling allows Cisco Unified CallManager to automatically throttle (deny) new call attempts when it determines that various factors, such as heavy call activity, low CPU availability to Cisco Unified CallManager, routing loops, disk I/O limitations, disk fragmentation or other such events, could result in a potential delay to dial tone (the interval users experience going off hook until they receive dial tone). QUESTION 84 In which two circumstances would Cisco Unified Communications Manager accept inbound H.323 calls unknown IP hosts? (Choose two.) A. when inbound H.323 calls are routed via gatekeeper-controlled trunks B. when inbound calls are routed via intercluster trunks C. after administrators have changed the Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusterwide service parameter of "Accept Unknown TCP connection" to true D. when inbound H.323 calls are routed via non-gatekeeper-controlled trunks E. when inbound calls are routed using H.323 fast start F. after administrators have changed the Cisco Unified Communications Manager clusterwide service parameter of "Unknown Caller ID Flag" to true Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 85 The Cisco UMR feature allows Cisco Unity to take outside caller messages while their Exchange Server is unavailable. Which two statements about Cisco UMR are incorrect? (Choose two.) A. If the Cisco Unity primary Exchange Server goes offline, all subscribers hear the UMR conversation. B. Cisco Unity messages, deposited while the Message Store is down, will have different time stamps after the Message Store returns to service and handles the message delivery. C. When Cisco Unity moves messages Cisco UMR to the Exchange Server, all messages appear as new

50 even if they were listened to using the UMR conversation, thus also triggering MWIs. D. Cisco Unity does not light MWIs for messages that arrived during an outage and are in Cisco UMR. E. The Cisco UMR messages that Cisco Unity handled during an Exchange outage are stored in the local directory at "C:\Commserver\UnityMTA". This path is hardcoded and cannot be changed after the Cisco Unity installation. F. During an Exchange outage, messages to the unaddressed message distribution lists appear in Cisco UMR and can be accessed by all members of the list. Correct Answer: EF /Reference: Specifically, the space available in the C:\Commserver\UnityMTA directory. This directory is controlled by a registry setting During an Exchange outage messages to distribution lists, such as the Unaddressed Messages distribution list, appear in the UMR but are addressed to the distribution list and not to the members of the distribution list QUESTION 86 Cisco Unity extends a number of schema object classes in Microsoft Active Directory during the schema extension process. Which three object classes are extended by the Cisco Unity schema extension process? (Choose three.) A. user B. computer C. domain D. organizational unit E. group F. contact Correct Answer: AEF /Reference: QUESTION 87 Refer to the exhibit.

51 Using information that is provided in the Cisco IOS gatekeeper configuration and the show gatekeeper endpoint output, how will the gatekeeper route the call when it receives an ARQ with a called number of 1000? A. The call will be extended to the device with the H.323 ID of "cucm". B. The call will be extended to the device with the H.323 ID of "cme". C. The information that is provided is insufficient to answer the question. The output of show gatekeeper gwtype-prefix is needed to determine the gateway selection decision of the gatekeeper. D. The call will be rejected by the gatekeeper. E. The information that is provided is insufficient to answer the question. The output of show gatekeeper zone status for the bandwidth consumption level is needed to determine if the gatekeeper will admit the call. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 88 Refer to the exhibit.

52 What will be experienced by a PSTN caller when calling into this T1 PRI circuit? A. The caller will hear a continuous ringback tone. B. The caller will hear a dial tone. C. The caller will hear a fast-busy tone. D. The caller will hear a slow-busy tone. E. The caller will not hear anything. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 89 Which set of SIP headers is mandatory in SIP requests? A. Call-ID, Contact, User-Agent, RSeq, SDP B. Allow, Supported, Via, From, To, CSeq C. Via, From, To, Call-ID, CSeq, Contact D. Content-Type, Content-Length, Session-Expires, Via, From E. Req URI, From, Via, To, CSeq Correct Answer: C /Reference: To, From, CSeq, Call-ID, Max-Forwards, and Via; all of these header fields are mandatory in all SIP requests. These six header fields are the fundamental building blocks of a SIP message

53 QUESTION 90 Which statement regarding SIP requests or responses is correct? A. SIP requests always expire after 120 seconds; this is known as the J-Timer in SIP RFC. B. Secure SIP requests using TLS cannot be interworked to non-tls networks. C. SIP responses are always sent to the IP or FQDN in the "Via" header of an incoming request. D. The "Max-Forwards" header value is incremented as it passes through each SIP hop. E. Midcall SIP requests are always sent to the IP or FQDN in the "Contact" header of an incoming request. Correct Answer: C /Reference: Topic 2, Volume B QUESTION 91 Which statement about the offer/answer model of SDP is correct? A. Offer/answer cannot be considered complete when it happens in an INVITE/18x exchange. B. PRACK message must not carry SDP, or else offer/answer will not work. C. Offer must be included in the initial INVITE; otherwise, offer/answer cannot complete. D. It is best to start a call without an offer and wait for an answer. E. ACK message can carry the SDP answer. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 92 Which two mechanisms can be used to detect SIP calls that are hung or stuck in an incomplete state? (Choose two.) A. SDP time stamps and version number B. PRACK (RSeq) C. session timer D. periodic hold/resume E. OOD Refer F. RTP and RTCP inactivity monitoring Correct Answer: CF /Reference: QUESTION 93 Which statement correctly describes symmetric signaling in SIP?

54 A. SIP devices use the same listening port for all incoming SIP messages. B. SIP devices send and receive SIP messages at the same time. C. SIP devices send SIP traffic to the same IP address and port number of an upstream element. D. SIP devices use the same source port for SIP messages. E. SIP devices use the same port number for sending and receiving SIP messages. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit. The line that is shown in the exhibit appeared in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace for a SIP IP phone that deregisters frequently. What could be the reason for deregistration? A. The phone was reset the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page. B. The phone lost power momentarily and rebooted itself. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager reset the TCP connection to the phone. D. The phone was restarted the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration web page. E. The phone aborted the TCP connection. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 95 Which statement about the "Unknown Caller ID" service parameter in Cisco Unified Communications Manager configuration is true? A. This parameter defines a numeric string to be displayed to the called party on inbound calls that arrived with no caller ID information. B. This parameter designates a numeric string to be displayed to the called party for outbound calls without caller ID information. C. This parameter defines a numeric or a text string to be displayed to the called party for inbound calls that arrived with no caller ID information. D. This parameter designates a numeric or a text string to be displayed to the called party for outbound calls without caller ID information. E. This parameter defines a numeric string to be displayed to the called party on inbound and outbound calls with no caller ID information. Correct Answer: A

55 /Reference: UnknownCallerId: The directory number to be displayed. Valid value is any numeric value representing a general number for your system (if you wish to provide caller ID functionality to called parties). Valid value is any valid telephone number. QUESTION 96 Which two media resources are not required by Cisco Unified Communications Manager for outbound earlyoffer support on SIP trunks? (Choose two.) A. annunciator B. software-based MTP in Cisco IOS gateways C. hardware-based MTPs in Cisco IOS gateways D. software-based MTPs using the Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming Application on Cisco MCS E. Cisco Unified Border Element with H.323-to-SIP interworking enabled Correct Answer: AE /Reference: QUESTION 97 There are several methods to transport DTMF digits between SIP endpoints. Which three methods are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.) A. Unsolicited Notify B. INFO C. KPML D. RFC 2833 in-band signal tone/event E. Cisco RTP-NTE F. H.245 alphanumeric Correct Answer: ACD /Reference: RTP-NTE and H.245 are H.323 counterparts. KPML and RFC2833 are confirmed. QUESTION 98 According to the Cisco QoS SRND guide, crtp is recommended on which link speed? A. lower than or equal to 10 Mb/s B. lower than or equal to 384 kb/s C. lower than or equal to Mb/s D. lower than or equal to 768 kb/s E. lower than or equal to 512 kb/s

56 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 99 Which Cisco IOS CLI command can be used to identify the high jitter level of an RTP stream on a Cisco IOS voice gateway? A. show call active voice brief B. show voip rtp connections C. show voice dsp detailed D. show voice call summary E. show policy-map interface Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 100 According to RFC 3551, where default mappings between RTP payload type numbers and encodings are defined, which RTP payload type corresponds to G.711 a-law encoding? A. 0 B. 1 C. 8 D. 13 E. 18 Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 101 According to RFC 3551, where default mappings between RTP payload type numbers and encodings are defined, which RTP payload type corresponds to encoded packets that are triggered by silence on a call with voice activity detection? A. 0 B. 13 C. 15 D. 18 Correct Answer: B

57 /Reference: QUESTION 102 Which version of MGCP is used on a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway that is registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. 0.0 B. 0.1 C. 1.0 D. 1.1 E. It varies between Cisco Unified Communications Manager versions. Correct Answer: B /Reference: MGCP call-agent: none Initial protocol service is MGCP 0.1 Cisco ios QUESTION 103 On a Cisco IOS MGCP gateway, which DTMF relay method uses MGCP NTFY messages to send digits to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Cisco B. NSE C. NTE-CA D. NTE-GW E. out-of-band Correct Answer: E /Reference: voip voaal2 all low-bitrate Specifies Voice-over-IP calls. Specifies Voice-over-AAL2 calls (using Annex K type 3 packets). Configures Dual Tone Multifrequency (DTMF) relay to be used with all voice codecs. Configures DTMF relay to be used with only low-bit-rate voice codecs, such as G.729. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) digit events are encoded using a

58 cisco nse out-ofband nte-gw nte-ca proprietary format similar to frame relay as described in the FRF.11 specification. The events are transmitted in the same RTP stream as nondigit voice samples, using payload type 121. RTP digit events are encoded using the format specified in RFC 2833, Section 3.0, and are transmitted in the same RTP stream as non-digit voice samples, using the payload type that is configured using the mgcp tse payload command. Media gateway control protocol (MGCP) digit events are sent using NTFY messages to the call agent (CA), which plays them on the remote GW using RQNT messages with S: (signal playout request). RTP digit events are encoded using the format specified in RFC 2833, Section 3.0, and are transmitted in the same RTP stream as non-digit voice samples. The payload type is negotiated by the GWs before use. The configured value for payload type is presented as the preferred choice at the beginning of the negotiation. Identical to the nte-gw keyword behavior except that the CA's local connection options a: line is used to enable or disable DTMF relay. QUESTION 104 Which SCCP message is used to instruct to an SCCP IP phone the remote IP address and port number to send RTP packets? A. Station IP Port message B. Station Open Receive Channel message C. Station Start Media Transmission message D. Station Call Information message E. Station Open Logical Channel message Correct Answer: C /Reference: Unified CM instructs both phones to Start Media Transmission to each other's IP addresses. The phones are once again connected via an RTP two-way audio stream. QUESTION 105 An IP phone user just answered an incoming call by lifting the handset. Assuming that the IP phone uses SCCP, which SCCP message will Cisco Unified Communications Manager transmit to this called IP phone immediately after receiving notification about the off-hook event? A. Station Media Port List message

59 B. Station Set Ringer message C. Station Stop Tone message D. Station Start Media Transmission message E. Station Open Receive Channel message Correct Answer: B /Reference: Station Set Ringer (Off) sccpaaph.pdf QUESTION 106 Which SCCP message is used by an IP phone to inform Cisco Unified Communications Manager about the IP address and port number to be used for an incoming RTP stream? A. Station Capability Response message B. Station IP Port message C. Station Open Receive Channel ACK message D. Station Media Reception ACK message E. Station Start Media Transmission message Correct Answer: C /Reference: sccpaaph.pdf QUESTION 107 When an IP phone that is using SCCP places an active call on hold, which SCCP message will be transmitted the phone to Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Station On Hold message B. Station Keypad Button message

60 C. Station Close Receive Channel message D. Station Stop Media Transmission message E. Station Softkey Event message Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 108 What is the proper Cisco IOS CLI command to configure an analog FXS port to be controlled by Cisco Unified Communications Manager using SCCP? A. dial-peer voice 1 pots port 1/0 service skinny B. dial-peer voice 1 pots port 1/0 service sccp C. dial-peer voice 1 pots port 1/0 service stcapp D. dial-peer voice 1 pots port 1/0 service sccpapp E. dial-peer voice 1 pots port 1/0 application sccp Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 109 Refer to the exhibit. Listed in the exhibit are five attributes that a Cisco IOS router uses to select an inbound dial peer. Which attribute order, highest to lowest priority, is used by a Cisco IOS router for inbound dial-peer matching?

61 A. II, I, III, V, IV B. III, I, II, V, IV C. III, II, I, V, IV D. II, III, I, V, IV E. V, III, II, I, IV F. V, II, III, I, IV Correct Answer: C /Reference: 1. Called number (DNIS) with the incoming called-number command 2. Calling Number (ANI) with the answer-address command 3. Calling Number (ANI) with the destination-pattern command 4. Voice-port (associated with the incoming call setup request) with configured dial peer port (applicable for inbound POTS call legs) 5. If no match is found in the first four steps, then the default dial peer 0 (pid:0) command is used. QUESTION 110 Which two attributes are not used by a Cisco IOS router in the inbound dial-peer selection process? (Choose two.) A. default dial-peer 0 B. called number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer C. calling number with the destination-pattern command of each dial peer D. calling number with the answer-address command of each dial peer E. called number with the incoming called-number command of each dial peer F. called number with the answer-address command of each dial peer G. voice port that is associated with an incoming call Correct Answer: BF /Reference: 1. Called number (DNIS) with the incoming called-number command 2. Calling Number (ANI) with the answer-address command 3. Calling Number (ANI) with the destination-pattern command 4. Voice-port (associated with the incoming call setup request) with configured dial peer port (applicable for inbound POTS call legs) 5. If no match is found in the first four steps, then the default dial peer 0 (pid:0) command is used. QUESTION 111 Refer to the exhibit.

62 When an inbound call with a calling number of 1001 and a called number of 2112 arrives at a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, highest to lowest priority? A. II, III, I, IV B. II, IV, III, I C. III, IV, II, I D. III, II, IV, I E. II, III, IV, I Correct Answer: D /Reference: 1. Called number (DNIS) with the incoming called-number command 2. Calling Number (ANI) with the answer-address command 3. Calling Number (ANI) with the destination-pattern command 4. Voice-port (associated with the incoming call setup request) with configured dial peer port (applicable for inbound POTS call legs) 5. If no match is found in the first four steps, then the default dial peer 0 (pid:0) command is used. QUESTION 112 Refer to the exhibit.

63 When an outbound call with a calling number of 2112 and a called number of 1001 is placed through a Cisco IOS router with these dial peers, what is the correct order of dial-peer matching, highest to lowest priority? A. I, II, III, IV B. II, I, III, IV C. II, I, IV, III D. I, II, IV, III E. II, IV, I, III Correct Answer: B /Reference: The method a router uses to select an outbound dial peer depends on whether ISDN DID is configured in the inbound POTS dial peer. If DID is not configured in the inbound POTS dial peer, the router collects the incoming dialed string digit by digit. As soon as one dial peer is matched, the router immediately places the call using the configured attributes in the matching dial peer. QUESTION 113 What is the default DTMF relay for Cisco Unity Express when integrated via SIP? A. RTP-NTE B. SIP Notify C. SIP INFO D. in-band audio E. SIP Subscribe/Notify Correct Answer: B

64 /Reference: QUESTION 114 Refer to the exhibit. This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that is sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these regarding the content of this SIP message is correct? A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 115 Refer to the exhibit.

65 This Cisco Unified Communications Manager trace shows a SIP message that was sent by a SIP Cisco Unified IP Phone 7965 to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Which of these about the content of this SIP message is correct? A. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager B. keepalive message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager C. phone registration message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during a server failover D. keepalive message to the secondary Cisco Unified Communications Manager E. phone registration message to the primary Cisco Unified Communications Manager during fallback Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 116 A customer purchased 10,000 phone license units for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. How many phone license unit overdrafts are permitted in this Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster? A. 200 B. 500 C. 700 D E. Phone license unit overdrafts are never permitted. Correct Answer: B /Reference:

66 5% overdraft. 5% of = 500 QUESTION 117 Refer to the exhibit. The error alert that is shown in the exhibit is seen in the "Event Viewer--Application Log" on Cisco Unified Presence. Which action will be performed by the Cisco LPM tool in response to the alert? A. LPM will purge trace and core files until disk usage is below the configured low watermark. B. LPM will purge all trace files and core files. C. LPM will not do anything; administrators must manually remove excess files in the active partition. D. LPM will not do anything; administrators must manually remove excess files in the common partition. E. LPM will purge some of the trace and core files until 50 percent of the disk space is available. Correct Answer: A /Reference: This alert occurs when the percentage of used disk space in the log partition exceeds the configured high water mark. When this alert gets generated, LPM deletes files in the log partition (down to low water mark) to avoid running out of disk space. QUESTION 118 Refer to the exhibit. The log was captured for a Cisco Unified Presence client that is not able to perform desk phone control to a Cisco IP phone. Which two of these could be the potential causes that are revealed by the log? (Choose two.) A. The IP phone is not registered. B. The IP phone is not configured with "Allow Control of Device CTI." C. The directory number of the IP phone is not configured with "Allow Control of Device CTI." D. The Standard CTI Enabled group is not added to the Cisco Unified Presence user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

67 E. The CTI gateway profile is not added to the user application profile in Cisco Unified Presence. F. The Cisco CTIManager service is not running on Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 119 Which network port is not used by the Cisco Unified Presence client? A. TCP port 143 B. TCP port 2000 C. TCP port 2748 D. UDP port 69 E. TCP port 443 F. TCP port 389 Correct Answer: B /Reference: used by IMAP used by CTI Gateway 69 - used by TFTP used by HTTPS used by LDAP QUESTION 120 When using the Local Route Group feature in Cisco Unified Communications Manager, in which two levels can you apply the called party transformation pattern? (Choose two.) A. device pool B. gateway C. route pattern D. route group E. route list F. service parameter Correct Answer: AB /Reference: verified in CUCM

68 QUESTION 121 Refer to the exhibit. Which dial peer will the Cisco IOS voice gateway match if an incoming call with a calling number of 100 and called number of 101 arrives at this T1 PRI port? A. dial-peer voice 2 B. dial-peer voice 3 C. dial-peer voice 5 D. dial-peer voice 8 E. dial-peer voice 0 Correct Answer: B /Reference: 1. Called number (DNIS) with the incoming called-number command 2. Calling Number (ANI) with the answer-address command 3. Calling Number (ANI) with the destination-pattern command 4. Voice-port (associated with the incoming call setup request) with configured dial peer port (applicable for inbound POTS call legs) 5. If no match is found in the first four steps, then the default dial peer 0 (pid:0) command is used. QUESTION 122 Refer to the exhibit.

69 Which dial peer will the Cisco IOS voice gateway match if an incoming call with a calling number of 100 and called number of 101 arrives at this T1 PRI port? A. dial-peer voice 2 B. dial-peer voice 3 C. dial-peer voice 5 D. dial-peer voice 8 E. dial-peer voice 0 Correct Answer: D /Reference: 1. Called number (DNIS) with the incoming called-number command 2. Calling Number (ANI) with the answer-address command 3. Calling Number (ANI) with the destination-pattern command 4. Voice-port (associated with the incoming call setup request) with configured dial peer port (applicable for inbound POTS call legs) 5. If no match is found in the first four steps, then the default dial peer 0 (pid:0) command is used. QUESTION 123 Refer to the exhibit.

70 Which two statements about this debug message that was captured a Cisco IOS H.323 gateway are correct? (Choose two.) A. The calling-party number is B. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 call proceeding message. C. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 setup ACK message. D. If this gateway is able to accept the call, it should respond with an H.225 connect ACK message. E. The called-party number is F. Neither gateway is allowed to begin RTP transmission until the H.225 connect message is sent. Correct Answer: AC

71 /Reference: QUESTION 124 Which Cisco IOS command and configuration mode can be used to force a Cisco IOS voice gateway to use TCP as the transport protocol for SIP? A. router(config)#sip transport tcp B. router(conf-voi-serv)#no sip transport udp C. router(conf-serv-sip)#no transport udp D. router(conf-serv-sip)#transport tcp E. router(config-sip-ua)#no transport udp Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 125 Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows how MOH Server A and MOH Server B are associated with Phone A and Phone B. If Phone A presses the Hold softkey during an active call with Phone B using the G.711 mu-law codec, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. MOH Server A will be used to play MOH toward Phone B. B. MOH Server B will be used to play MOH toward Phone B. C. Phone B will continue using G.711 as the codec to receive MOH. D. Phone B will use G.729 as the codec to receive MOH by default. E. Phone B will renegotiate the codec with the selected MOH server based on the region settings of both parties. Correct Answer: BE /Reference:

72 QUESTION 126 When calls are placed by certain Cisco Unified Communications Manager supplementary services, the Local Route Group feature will be bypassed. Which of these does not belong to the supplementary services? A. Call Back B. Call Forward C. Message Waiting Indicator D. Mobility Follow Me E. Path Replacement Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 127 Phone A, Phone B, and Phone C are configured to be in Device Pool A, Device Pool B, and Device Pool C, respectively. The Local Route Group feature was configured on Cisco Unified Communications Manager for each device pool. Phone B has set CFA to Phone C; Phone C has set CFNA to a PSTN number. When Phone A calls Phone B and if Phone C does not answer, which local route group will be used to route the call? A. The local route group that is configured for the Phone A device pool will be used. B. The local route group that is configured for the Phone B device pool will be used. C. The local route group that is configured for the Phone C device pool will be used. D. All local route groups will be bypassed. E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager will disallow the forwarded call because it might cause routing loops. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 128 Refer to the exhibit.

73 The exhibit shows the T.30 message exchanges that resulted in a single page fax call failure. Which T.30 message sequence will result in a successful fax transmission? A. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN B. MPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN C. PPS, EOP, RTP, PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN D. PPS, EOP, PPR, PPS, EOP, MCF, DCN E. PPS, EOP, NSF, DCN Correct Answer: D /Reference:

74 QUESTION 129 Refer to the exhibit. The debug outputs that are shown in the exhibit were collected at the terminating Cisco IOS gateway for a fax call that failed. Which two of these could be the failure reasons? (Choose two.) A. The fax originated a third-party fax gateway. B. The fax originated a Cisco gateway that is configured with a protocol-based Cisco fax relay. C. The fax originated a Cisco gateway that is configured with a protocol-based fax pass- through. D. The fax originated a Cisco gateway that is configured with an NTE-based fax pass- through. E. The fax originated a gateway that is configured with an NSE-based fax relay. Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 130 Which MGCP message is used to indicate fax switchover in a call agent-controlled T.38 fax relay? A. CRCX B. NSE C. NTE D. NTFY E. MDCX Correct Answer: E /Reference: EPCF RQNT NTFY EndpointConfiguration specifies the encoding of the signals that will be received by the endpoint. NotificationRequest requests the gateway to send notifications upon the occurrence of specified events in an endpoint. Notify sent by the gateway in compliance with RQNT when a triggering event occurs.

75 CRCX MDCX DLCX AUEP AUCX RSIP CreateConnection creates a connection between two endpoints. ModifyConnection modifies the characteristics of a gateway's "view" of a connection. This "view" of the call includes both the local connection descriptor as well as the remote connection descriptor. DeleteConnection ( the Call Agent) terminates a connection. As a side effect, it collects statistics on the execution of the connection. DeleteConnection ( the gateway) issued by the media gateway to clear a connection, for example because it has lost the resource associated with the connection, or because it has detected that the endpoint no longer is capable or willing to send or receive voice. DeleteConnection (multiple connections, the Call Agent) used by the Call Agent to delete multiple connections at the same time. The command can be used to delete all connections that relate to a Call for an endpoint or terminate in a given endpoint. AuditEndpoint used by the call agent to find out the status of a given endpoint. AuditConnection used by the Call Agent to retrieve the parameters attached to a connection. RestartInProgress used by the gateway to signal that an endpoint, or a group of endpoints, is put in-service or out-of-service. products_maintenance_guide_chapter09186a c.html#xtocid10 QUESTION 131 Refer to the exhibit. The debug that is shown was captured on a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express router with FXO

76 ports connecting to the PSTN. All incoming calls the PSTN are directed to an IP phone operator for further processing. The IP phone operator has reported that the calling number and name are absent for all incoming PSTN calls. Which configuration will resolve this issue? A. B. 65 C. D. E. Exhibit A F. Exhibit B G. Exhibit C H. Exhibit D Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 132 Refer to the exhibit.

77 Which two DTMF capabilities are advertised in this SIP INVITE message? (Choose two.) A. in-band voice B. RTP-NTE C. SIP KPML D. SIP Notify E. Cisco RTP F. RTP-NSE Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 133 Refer to the exhibit.

78 Which three header fields do not change for the duration of this call using SIP? (Choose three.) A. From tag B. To tag C. Contact: D. transaction ID in the Viheader E. request URI F. Call-ID: Correct Answer: ABF /Reference: QUESTION 134 Refer to the exhibit.

79 Which data rate, in bits per second, would be negotiated for a T.38 fax call? A B C D E Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 135 Which three statements about a modem pass-through call are correct? (Choose three.) A. Clear-channel codec is used to transport modem tones. B. G.711 mu-law codec is used to transport modem tones. C. VAD is disabled. D. VAD is enabled. E. NLP is disabled. F. NLP is enabled. Correct Answer: BCE /Reference: QUESTION 136 Refer to the exhibit.

80 What is the correct duration, in milliseconds, of the DTMF digit that is received? A. 30 B. 40 C. 60 D. 65 E. 101 Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 137 Which three services must be activated on Cisco Unified Presence in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Unified Presence SIP Proxy B. Cisco AXL Web Service C. Cisco Bulk Provisioning Service D. Cisco Unified Presence Engine E. Cisco Unified Presence Sync Agent F. Cisco Serviceability Reporter Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: QUESTION 138 Which Cisco Unified Presence service parameter must be modified the default value in order for presence and instant messaging to be functional?

81 A. server name B. server IP address C. DNS domain D. SIP proxy domain E. enable presence Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 139 What is required to back up Cisco Unified Presence configuration? A. tape backup device B. USB hard disk C. FTP server D. SFTP server E. TFTP server Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 140 Refer to the exhibit.

82 Which of the certificates that are shown must be uploaded to Cisco Unified Presence when integrating the calendar with Exchange Server " .cisco.com"? A. DST Root CA X3 only B. Cisco SSCA only C. .cisco.com only D. DST Root CA X3 and Cisco SSCA E. Cisco SSCA and .cisco.com Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 141 Which of these best describes the "Incoming ACL" configuration on Cisco Unified Presence? A. permits incoming packets to Cisco Unified Presence B. bypasses digest authentication C. allows instant messages

83 D. allows incoming certificates to Cisco Unified Presence E. filters incoming presence status requests Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 142 Which Cisco tool can be used to capture packets on Cisco Unified Presence? A. Cisco Unified Presence CLI B. System Troubleshooter on the Cisco Unified Presence web portal C. Cisco Unified RTMT D. Cisco Unified Presence "Cisco Unified Serviceability" web portal E. Cisco Unified Presence "Cisco Unified OS Administration" web portal Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 143 Refer to the exhibit.

84 User "jdoe" was not able to download voice mail with his Cisco Unified Personal Communicator. Which configuration change on the Voic Profile Configuration page on Cisco Unified Presence is most likely to solve this problem? A. Change the Name field to the IP address. B. Select the appropriate option in the Voice Messaging Pilot field. C. Select the appropriate option in the Primary Voic Server field. D. Select the appropriate option in the Primary Mailstore field. E. Check the "Make this the default Voic Profile for the system" check box. Correct Answer: D /Reference:

85 QUESTION 144 Which two Cisco Unified Contact Center Express system components do not support integration redundancy? (Choose two.) A. CTI ports B. AXL service C. Cisco Unified CM Telephony trigger D. CSQ E. dialog groups F. HTTP trigger Correct Answer: DF /Reference: QUESTION 145 Which three statements about the Outbound Dialer solution on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express are correct? (Choose three.) A. The Outbound Dialer can make a call as long as the CTI port is available. B. In a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express high-availability system, the Outbound Dialer would not be functional if one of the database nodes is down. C. When the Outbound Dialer makes a call to an invalid number, the system disconnects the call automatically and will not involve any agent. D. The Outbound Dialer cannot use the Cisco IP Phone Agent to make calls. E. When the Outbound Dialer selects an agent to take a call, the agent will be given a choice whether to accept the call. Correct Answer: BDE /Reference: QUESTION 146 Which two statements about the Agent feature on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express are correct? (Choose two.) A. An -capable agent can receive both an incoming call and at the same time. B. This feature supports IMAPv4, POP3, and SMTP protocols. C. All routing rules are configured at the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Administration web interface. D. An agent can use either Cisco Agent Desktop or Cisco Agent Desktop--Browser Edition to answer the . E. To make an agent capable, assign the agent to an CSQ. Correct Answer: AE

86 /Reference: QUESTION 147 You have discovered that the Cisco Unified CM Telephony subsystem is in "PARTIAL_SERVICE" on a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server. Which two misconfigurations could lead to this service state? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager JTAPI user has invalid login credentials. B. Not all CTI ports and CTI route points are associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager JTAPI user. C. The hostname/ip address for Cisco Unified Communications Manager is incorrect. D. Not all agent phones are associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager JTAPI user. E. An invalid Cisco Unified Contact Center Express script is used by one of the applications. Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 148 After logging into Cisco Agent Desktop, a Cisco Unified Contact Center Express agent could not go into ready state. Which two reasons could lead to this failure? (Choose two.) A. The agent has not been assigned to any CSQ. B. The agent IP phone lost network connectivity. C. The agent has entered incorrect login credentials. D. The agent supervisor has not logged in. E. The agent IP phone has not been associated with the agent user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 149 Which of these best describes packetization delay in a VoIP network? A. the time that is taken by the DSP to compress a block of PCM samples B. the time that is taken by the compression algorithm to correctly process sample block N C. the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech D. the time that is required to clock a voice frame onto the network interface E. the time that is taken to queue a voice frame for transmission on the network connection Correct Answer: C /Reference:

87 QUESTION 150 Which of these best describes encoder delay in a VoIP network? A. the time that is taken by the compression algorithm to correctly process sample block N B. the time that is taken by the DSP to compress a block of PCM samples C. the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech D. the time that is required to clock a voice frame onto the network interface E. the time that is taken to queue a voice frame for transmission on the network connection Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 151 Which delay in a VoIP network is also known as accumulation delay? A. coder delay B. network switching delay C. queuing delay D. packetization delay E. dejitter delay Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 152 Which statement about coder delay in a VoIP network is correct? A. Coder delay is the time that is taken to fill a packet payload with encoded/compressed speech. B. Coder delay is also known as algorithmic delay. C. Coder delay transforms a variable delay into a fixed delay. D. Coder delay varies with the voice coder that is used and the processor speed. E. Coder delay compensates for network switching delay. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 153 Which Cisco IOS command is used to define the size of the jitter buffer on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways? A. jitter-buffer B. expect-factor

88 C. acc-qos D. playout-delay E. dejitter-buffer Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 154 Which three Cisco IOS commands can be used to verify configured playout delay values on Cisco VoIP gateways? (Choose three.) A. show voice call summary B. show call active voice C. show dial-peer voice tag number for dial peer D. show voice port voice interface number E. show voice dsp detail F. show voice accounting method Correct Answer: BCD /Reference: QUESTION 155 Which two characteristics about traffic shaping on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are incorrect? (Choose two.) A. Traffic shaping propagates burst. B. Traffic shaping buffers and queues excess packets above the committed rates. C. Traffic shaping token values are configured in bits per second. D. Traffic shaping is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic. E. FRTS and generic traffic shaping are two ways of implementing traffic shaping. F. Traffic shaping could introduce delays becaus of deep queues. Correct Answer: AD /Reference: QUESTION 156 Which two characteristics about traffic policing on Cisco IOS VoIP gateways are correct? (Choose two.) A. Traffic policing buffers and re-marks excess packets above the committed rates. B. Traffic policing propagates burst. C. Traffic policing token values are configured in bits per second. D. Traffic policing is applicable to both inbound and outbound traffic. E. Traffic policing is an inbound-only concept.

89 F. Traffic policing could introduce delays because of deep queues. Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 157 CRTP belongs to which Cisco quality of service feature? A. classification B. congestion management C. congestion avoidance D. shaping and policing E. link efficiency mechanisms Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 158 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the QoS configuration for interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/1 on the Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch is correct? A. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 1 being shaped to 25 percent of the available bandwidth. B. Egress sharing is enabled for all four queues; each queue is allocated 25 percent of the available bandwidth. C. Egress shaping is disabled. D. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 1 being shaped to 4 percent of the available bandwidth. E. Egress shaping is enabled with queue 4 being shaped to 4 percent of the available bandwidth. Correct Answer: D /Reference:

90 QUESTION 159 Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct expansion of the srr-queue abbreviation that is shown in the Cisco IOS command of the Catalyst 3750 Series Switch? A. shared round-robin queue B. serviced round-robin queue C. shaped round-robin queue D. special round-robin queue E. serial round-robin queue Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 160 Which statement about the Cisco Unity Connection message quota enforcement policies when a mailbox has exceeded the send/receive quota is incorrect? A. The user is unable to send messages. B. Cisco Unity Connection will automatically purge all deleted messages in the user mailbox. C. The user hears a warning that the message cannot be sent. D. Unidentified callers are not allowed to leave messages for the user. E. Messages other users generate nondelivery receipts to the senders. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 161 What is the default mailbox size that triggers disablement of sending and receiving voice messages for a Cisco Unity Connection user? A. 2 MB B. 4 MB C. 10 MB D. 14 MB E. 20 MB Correct Answer: D

91 /Reference: Quota Level Mailbox Size That Triggers Quota Action Action When Quota Is Reached Recording Time in Minutes Before Quota Is Reached G.711 Mu-Law G.711 A-Law G Kbps PCM 8 khz G.729a Warning 12 megabytes The user is warned that the mailbox is reaching the maximum size allowed Send 13 megabytes The user is prevented sending any more voice messages Send/ Receive 14 megabytes The user is prevented sending or receiving any more voice messages QUESTION 162 Which two statements about system broadcast messages on Cisco Unity Connection are correct? (Choose two.) A. Users can fast-forward a system broadcast message. B. Users can save a system broadcast message. C. Users must listen to a system broadcast message in its entirety before they are allowed to hear new and saved messages or to change setup options. D. A system broadcast message that has been listened to in its entirety will still be played again the next time that the user logs in, but the user will be offered an option to skip it. E. If a user hangs up before playing the entire system broadcast message, the message plays again the next time that the user logs in, as long as the message is still active. F. Users can forward a system broadcast message. Correct Answer: CE /Reference: System broadcast messages are played immediately after users log on to Cisco Unity Connection by phone even before they hear message counts for new and saved messages. After logging on, users hear how many system broadcast messages they have and Connection begins playing them. For each system broadcast message, the sender specifies how long Connection broadcasts the message. The sender can specify that a system broadcast message is "active" for a day, a week, a month even indefinitely. A user hears the system broadcast message the first time that he or she logs on to Connection during the period that the message is active.

92 Users must listen to a system broadcast message in its entirety before Connection allows them to hear new and saved messages or to change setup options. Users cannot fast-forward or skip a system broadcast message. If a user hangs up before playing the entire system broadcast message, the message plays again the next time that the user logs on to Connection by phone (assuming that the message is still active). When a user has finished playing a system broadcast message, the message can either be replayed or permanently deleted. Users cannot respond to, forward, or save system broadcast messages. Users can receive an unlimited number of system broadcast messages. Users receive system broadcast messages even when they exceed their mailbox size limits and are no longer able to receive other messages. Because of the way that the messages are stored on the Connection server, they are not included in the total mailbox size for each user. New users hear all active system broadcast messages immediately after they enroll as Connection users. By design, system broadcast messages do not trigger message waiting indicators (MWIs) on user phones. They also do not trigger message notifications for alternative devices, such as a pager or another phone. Users hear broadcast messages only when listening to messages by phone. Users do not receive system broadcast messages when listening to messages in the Cisco Unity Inbox, an RSS reader, IMAP clients, Cisco Unified Personal Communicator, or Cisco Unified Messaging with IBM Lotus Sametime. Connection does not respond to voice commands while playing broadcast messages. When using the voicerecognition input style, users will need to use key presses to either replay or delete the broadcast message. QUESTION 163 Which two statements about system broadcast messages on Cisco Unity Connection are correct? (Choose two.) A. Users receive system broadcast messages even when they exceed their mailbox size limits and are no longer able to receive other messages. B. System broadcast messages trigger MWIs on user phones but do not trigger MWIs on alternate devices such as a pager. C. Users hear broadcast messages only when listening to messages by phone. D. A system broadcast message that has been listened to in its entirety will still be played again the next time that the user logs in, but the user will be offered an option to skip it. E. Users can only receive a limited number of system broadcast messages that are defined by the Cisco Unity Connection Broadcast Message Administrator. F. Users can respond to a system broadcast message. Correct Answer: AC /Reference: System broadcast messages are played immediately after users log on to Cisco Unity Connection by phone even before they hear message counts for new and saved messages. After logging on, users hear how many system broadcast messages they have and Connection begins playing them. For each system broadcast message, the sender specifies how long Connection broadcasts the message. The

93 sender can specify that a system broadcast message is "active" for a day, a week, a month even indefinitely. A user hears the system broadcast message the first time that he or she logs on to Connection during the period that the message is active. Users must listen to a system broadcast message in its entirety before Connection allows them to hear new and saved messages or to change setup options. Users cannot fast-forward or skip a system broadcast message. If a user hangs up before playing the entire system broadcast message, the message plays again the next time that the user logs on to Connection by phone (assuming that the message is still active). When a user has finished playing a system broadcast message, the message can either be replayed or permanently deleted. Users cannot respond to, forward, or save system broadcast messages. Users can receive an unlimited number of system broadcast messages. Users receive system broadcast messages even when they exceed their mailbox size limits and are no longer able to receive other messages. Because of the way that the messages are stored on the Connection server, they are not included in the total mailbox size for each user. New users hear all active system broadcast messages immediately after they enroll as Connection users. By design, system broadcast messages do not trigger message waiting indicators (MWIs) on user phones. They also do not trigger message notifications for alternative devices, such as a pager or another phone. Users hear broadcast messages only when listening to messages by phone. Users do not receive system broadcast messages when listening to messages in the Cisco Unity Inbox, an RSS reader, IMAP clients, Cisco Unified Personal Communicator, or Cisco Unified Messaging with IBM Lotus Sametime. Connection does not respond to voice commands while playing broadcast messages. When using the voicerecognition input style, users will need to use key presses to either replay or delete the broadcast message. QUESTION 164 What is the maximum number of days for Cisco Unity Connection to retain expired system broadcast messages? A. 1 day B. 5 days C. 10 days D. 30 days E. 60 days Correct Answer: E /Reference: Retention Period Indicates how long Connection retains expired system broadcast messages on the server. By default, Connection purges the WAV file and any data associated with a message 30 days after its end date and time. To change the retention period for expired broadcast messages, enter a number 1 to 60 days.

94 QUESTION 165 What is the default maximum recording length that is allowed for system broadcast messages on a Cisco Unity Connection server? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 20 minutes E. 30 minutes Correct Answer: A /Reference: Maximum Recording Length Indicates the maximum length allowed for system broadcast messages. By default, senders can record messages up to 300,000 milliseconds (5 minutes) in length. To change the maximum recording length, enter a number 60,000 (1 minute) to 36,000,000 (60 minutes) milliseconds. QUESTION 166 What is the maximum recording length that is allowed for system broadcast messages on a Cisco Unity Connection server? A. 5 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes D. 30 minutes E. 60 minutes Correct Answer: E /Reference: Maximum Recording Length Indicates the maximum length allowed for system broadcast messages. By default, senders can record messages up to 300,000 milliseconds (5 minutes) in length. To change the maximum recording length, enter a number 60,000 (1 minute) to 36,000,000 (60 minutes) milliseconds. QUESTION 167 Which of these is not a valid VPIM message addressing option that is provided by Cisco Unity Connection to individuals on a remote voice messaging system? A. blind addressing B. Cisco Unity Connection directory C. implicit addressing D. private distribution list

95 E. system distribution list Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 168 Which three call handlers are predefined on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. goodbye B. holiday greeting C. internal D. opening greeting E. operator F. closed G. standard Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: Opening Greeting Acts as an automated attendant, playing the greeting that callers first hear when they call your organization, and performing the actions you specify. The Opening Greeting Call Routing rule transfers all incoming calls to the Opening Greeting call handler. By default, the Opening Greeting call handler allows callers to press * to reach the Sign-in conversation, or press # to reach the Operator call handler. Messages left in the Opening Greeting call handler are sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list. Operator Calls are routed to this call handler when callers press "0" or do not press any key (the default setting). You can set up the Operator call handler so that callers can leave a message or be transferred to a live operator. By default, the Operator call handler allows callers to press * to reach the Sign-in conversation, or press # to reach the Opening Greeting call handler. Messages left in the Operator call handler are sent to the mailbox for the Operator user. Goodbye Plays a brief goodbye message and then hangs up if there is no caller input. By default, the Goodbye call handler allows callers to press * to reach the Sign-in conversation, or press # to reach the Opening Greeting call handler. If you change the After Greeting action Hang Up to Take Message, then messages left in the Goodbye call handler are sent to the Undeliverable Messages distribution list. QUESTION 169 Which greeting type is not a valid call handler on Cisco Unity Connection? A. busy

96 B. closed C. external D. holiday E. standard Correct Answer: C /Reference: Standard Closed Holiday Internal Plays at all times unless overridden by another greeting. You cannot disable the standard greeting. Plays during the closed (nonbusiness) hours defined for the active schedule. A closed greeting overrides the standard greeting, and thus limits the standard greeting to the open hours defined for the active schedule. Plays during the specific dates and times specified in the schedule of holidays associated with the active schedule. A holiday greeting overrides the standard and closed greetings. Plays to internal callers only. It can provide information that only coworkers need to know. (For example, "I will be in the lab all afternoon.") An internal greeting overrides the standard, closed, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for an internal greeting. Busy Plays when the extension is busy. (For example, "All of our operators are with other customers.") A busy greeting overrides the standard, closed, internal, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for a busy greeting. Alternate Error Can be used for a variety of special situations, such as vacations or a leave of absence. (For example, "I will be out of the office until...") An alternate greeting overrides all other greetings. Plays if the caller enters invalid digits. This can happen if the digits do not match an extension, the extension is not found in the search scope, or the caller is otherwise restricted dialing the digits. You cannot disable the error greeting. The system default error recording is, "I did not recognize that as a valid entry." By default, after the error greeting plays, Connection replays the greeting that was playing when the caller entered the invalid digits. guide/7xcucsag060.html#wp QUESTION 170 Which two call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection are overridden by the holiday greeting? (Choose two.) A. alternate B. busy C. closed D. error E. internal F. standard

97 Correct Answer: CF /Reference: Standard Closed Holiday Internal Plays at all times unless overridden by another greeting. You cannot disable the standard greeting. Plays during the closed (nonbusiness) hours defined for the active schedule. A closed greeting overrides the standard greeting, and thus limits the standard greeting to the open hours defined for the active schedule. Plays during the specific dates and times specified in the schedule of holidays associated with the active schedule. A holiday greeting overrides the standard and closed greetings. Plays to internal callers only. It can provide information that only coworkers need to know. (For example, "I will be in the lab all afternoon.") An internal greeting overrides the standard, closed, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for an internal greeting. Busy Plays when the extension is busy. (For example, "All of our operators are with other customers.") A busy greeting overrides the standard, closed, internal, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for a busy greeting. Alternate Error Can be used for a variety of special situations, such as vacations or a leave of absence. (For example, "I will be out of the office until...") An alternate greeting overrides all other greetings. Plays if the caller enters invalid digits. This can happen if the digits do not match an extension, the extension is not found in the search scope, or the caller is otherwise restricted dialing the digits. You cannot disable the error greeting. The system default error recording is, "I did not recognize that as a valid entry." By default, after the error greeting plays, Connection replays the greeting that was playing when the caller entered the invalid digits. guide/7xcucsag060.html#wp QUESTION 171 Which three call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection are overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.) A. alternate B. busy C. closed D. error E. holiday F. standard Correct Answer: CEF

98 /Reference: Standard Closed Holiday Internal Plays at all times unless overridden by another greeting. You cannot disable the standard greeting. Plays during the closed (nonbusiness) hours defined for the active schedule. A closed greeting overrides the standard greeting, and thus limits the standard greeting to the open hours defined for the active schedule. Plays during the specific dates and times specified in the schedule of holidays associated with the active schedule. A holiday greeting overrides the standard and closed greetings. Plays to internal callers only. It can provide information that only coworkers need to know. (For example, "I will be in the lab all afternoon.") An internal greeting overrides the standard, closed, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for an internal greeting. Busy Plays when the extension is busy. (For example, "All of our operators are with other customers.") A busy greeting overrides the standard, closed, internal, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for a busy greeting. Alternate Error Can be used for a variety of special situations, such as vacations or a leave of absence. (For example, "I will be out of the office until...") An alternate greeting overrides all other greetings. Plays if the caller enters invalid digits. This can happen if the digits do not match an extension, the extension is not found in the search scope, or the caller is otherwise restricted dialing the digits. You cannot disable the error greeting. The system default error recording is, "I did not recognize that as a valid entry." By default, after the error greeting plays, Connection replays the greeting that was playing when the caller entered the invalid digits. guide/7xcucsag060.html#wp QUESTION 172 Which two call handler greeting types on Cisco Unity Connection cannot be disabled? (Choose two.) A. alternate B. busy C. closed D. error E. holiday F. standard Correct Answer: DF /Reference: Standard Plays at all times unless overridden by another greeting.you cannot disable the standard greeting.

99 Closed Holiday Internal Plays during the closed (nonbusiness) hours defined for the active schedule. A closed greeting overrides the standard greeting, and thus limits the standard greeting to the open hours defined for the active schedule. Plays during the specific dates and times specified in the schedule of holidays associated with the active schedule. A holiday greeting overrides the standard and closed greetings. Plays to internal callers only. It can provide information that only coworkers need to know. (For example, "I will be in the lab all afternoon.") An internal greeting overrides the standard, closed, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for an internal greeting. Busy Plays when the extension is busy. (For example, "All of our operators are with other customers.") A busy greeting overrides the standard, closed, internal, and holiday greetings. Not all phone system integrations provide the support necessary for a busy greeting. Alternate Error Can be used for a variety of special situations, such as vacations or a leave of absence. (For example, "I will be out of the office until...") An alternate greeting overrides all other greetings. Plays if the caller enters invalid digits. This can happen if the digits do not match an extension, the extension is not found in the search scope, or the caller is otherwise restricted dialing the digits. You cannot disable the error greeting. The system default error recording is, "I did not recognize that as a valid entry." By default, after the error greeting plays, Connection replays the greeting that was playing when the caller entered the invalid digits. guide/7xcucsag060.html#wp QUESTION 173 Which three options are not valid application types on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? (Choose three.) A. alternate application B. busy C. Cisco script application D. Cisco Unified CM Telephony E. Ring No Answer F. standard application Correct Answer: ADF /Reference: QUESTION 174 What is the correct variable type for the "CSQ" variable in the "icd.aef" script on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? A. string B. user C. queue

100 D. document E. Boolean Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 175 What is the correct variable type for the "DelayWhileQueued" variable in the "icd.aef" script on Cisco Unified Contact Center Express? A. string B. user C. number D. integer E. Boolean Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 176 Which statement about embedded Tcl scripts for B-ACD on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is correct? A. The Tcl scripts that are required for B-ACD services, along with the default audio files, must be available on the router flash memory. B. The Tcl scripts and the default audio files for B-ACD services are embedded natively in the Cisco IOS Software, eliminating the requirement to download these files to the router flash memory. C. The Tcl scripts that are required for B-ACD services are embedded natively in the Cisco IOS Software; however, the default audio files must still be downloaded to the router flash memory. D. The default audio files are embedded natively in the B-ACD Tcl scripts. E. The Tcl scripts and the default audio files for B-ACD services must be available on a TFTP server other than the router itself Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 177 Which of these is not a mandatory configuration component to enable B-ACD service on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express? A. an automated attendant Tcl script that handles the welcome prompt and menu choices B. a call-queue Tcl script that manages call routing and the queuing behavior number C. an ephone hunt group to receive calls the call-queue service

101 D. incoming dial peers for automated attendant pilot numbers E. Cisco Unity Express for voice mail to receive undelivered B-ACD calls Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 178 On Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with a B-ACD application that is provisioned for four hunt groups--aa-hunt1, aa-hunt2, aa-hunt3, and aa-hunt4--which hunt group will be chosen when a caller dials 0? A. aa-hunt0 B. aa-hunt1 C. aa-hunt2 D. aa-hunt3 E. aa-hunt4 Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 179 What is the maximum number of calls that are allowed in each ephone hunt group call queue that is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD? A. 10 B. 15 C. 20 D. 25 E. 30 Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 180 What is the default number of calls that are allowed in each ephone hunt group call queue that is used by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 E. 30 Correct Answer: B

102 /Reference: QUESTION 181 What is the maximum number of ephone hunt groups that can be used with a call-queue service by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express B-ACD? A. 3 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15 E. 20 Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 182 Refer to the exhibit.

103 What is the pilot number for the ephone hunt group that is configured on this Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express with B-ACD? A. 1 B. 30 C D E Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 183 Refer to the exhibit.

104 Which statement about the B-ACD configuration on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express is correct? A. B-ACD will wait 20 seconds between retries to connect to an ephone hunt group pilot number. B. The B-ACD automated attendant script will play the "_bacd_welcome.au" file as soon as an incoming call is answered. C. The caller is able to dial extension numbers when selecting menu option 3. D. Calls are answered and routed to a call queue immediately without invoking any interactive menu. E. The maximum number of calls that are waiting in the B-ACD queue is 20. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 184

105 Which attribute is not associable with a device profile on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. User Hold MOH Audio Source B. phone button template C. softkey template D. directory URL E. expansion module information Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 185 Which two attributes are associable with a device profile on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. MLPP information B. Network Hold MOH Audio Source C. privacy D. directory URL E. authentication service URL Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 186 The Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service belongs to which feature service group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Database and Admin Services B. Performance and Monitoring Services C. CM Services D. CTI Services E. Voice Quality Reporter Services Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 187 The Cisco AXL Web Service belongs to which feature service group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Database and Admin Services B. Performance and Monitoring Services

106 C. CM Services D. CTI Services E. Voice Quality Reporter Services Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 188 The Cisco Unified Communications Manager Assistant service belongs to which feature service group on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. Database and Admin Services B. Performance and Monitoring Services C. CM Services D. CTI Services E. Voice Quality Reporter Services Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 189 Which two of these are valid modes of operation for the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Assistant feature? (Choose two.) A. forwarded line support B. pickup line support C. proxy line support D. hybrid line support E. shared line support F. dual line support Correct Answer: CE /Reference: QUESTION 190 Which three features override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.) A. park reversion for remotely parked calls B. callback--terminating side C. MLPP D. hold reversion

107 E. park reversion for locally parked calls F. remotely placed pickup request Correct Answer: CDE /Reference: QUESTION 191 Which two features do not override the DND setting on an SCCP-controlled IP phone on Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.) A. park reversion for remotely parked calls B. MLPP C. callback--terminating side D. hold reversion E. intercom F. park reversion for locally parked calls Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 192 Which statement about whisper intercom implementation on Cisco Unified Communications Manager is correct? A. Only one-way audio exists the calling to the called party. B. The speaker volume on the called phone will be reduced automatically to avoid disturbance to other users nearby. C. The called party auto-answers the call in headset mode. D. Only one-way audio exists the called to the calling party. E. Whisper Intercom is visual only, there is no audio. Correct Answer: A /Reference: When a phone user dials a whisper intercom line, the called phone automatically answers using speakerphone mode, providing a one-way voice path the caller to the called party, regardless of whether the called party is busy or idle. Unlike the standard intercom feature, this feature allows an intercom call to a busy extension. The calling party can only be heard by the recipient. The original caller on the receiving phone does not hear the whisper page. The phone receiving a whisper page displays the extension and name of the party initiating the whisper page and Cisco Unified CME plays a zipzip tone before the called party hears the caller's voice. If the called party wants to speak to the caller, the called party selects the intercom line button on their phone. The lamp for intercom buttons are colored amber to indicate one-way audio for whisper intercom and green to indicate twoway audio for standard intercom.

108 You must configure a whisper intercom directory number for each phone that requires the Whisper Intercom feature. A whisper intercom directory number can place calls only to another whisper intercom directory number. Calls between a whisper intercom directory number and a standard directory number or intercom directory number are rejected with a busy tone. This feature is supported in Cisco Unified CME 7.1 and later versions QUESTION 193 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the "Operational VLAN Id" parameter on the Cisco IP phone Network Configuration menu are true? (Choose two.) A. This parameter can be configured the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Web Administration Phone Configuration page. B. This parameter can be manually administered the phone, as long as the Settings menu of the phone is unlocked. C. This parameter is learned the connected switch port. D. This parameter cannot be locally administered the phone. E. This parameter can be configured by establishing an HTTP session to the IP address of the phone. Correct Answer: CD /Reference: QUESTION 194 Refer to the exhibit.