VMCE_V9.exam.95q Number: VMCE_V9 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1 Veeam VMCE_V9 Veeam Certified Engineer (VMCE) Certification v9
Exam A QUESTION 1 Which of the following statements about the Guest Integration Proxy component is true? A. Deploys a Veeam persistent agent on every Windows virtual machine to be processed B. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every Linux virtual machine to be processed with Enterprise edition or higher C. Mounts the virtual machine file system for browsing purposes when performing a restore to remote site D. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every Windows virtual machine to be processed with Enterprise edition or higher E. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every virtual machine to be processed Correct Answer: E /Reference: : Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/guest_interaction_proxy.html?ver=95 QUESTION 2 Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories? A. Veeam ONE B. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager C. Veeam Backup & Replication D. Veeam plug-in for vsphere Web Client Correct Answer: D /Reference: :
QUESTION 3 Is it possible to switch between backup modes when creating regular backup files? A. Yes, the new mode will transform all existing backups in the appropriate way and continue creating backups in the same backup repository. B. Yes, in this case you will have to specify a new backup repository. C. Yes, the new mode leaves existing backups as they are and continues creating backups in the same backup repository. D. No, if you want to create backups using another mode, you have to create another backup job. Correct Answer: C /Reference: : QUESTION 4 Which Veeam Backup & Replication component or service should be added to the scenario below in order to optimize backups to an off-site CIFS share?
A. In additional backup repository in the remote site B. A WAN Accelerator service in the remote location C. An additional Data Mover service on the Veeam Backup & Replication server D. A Windows-based gateway server in the remote site Correct Answer: B /Reference: : QUESTION 5 Which of the following is the function of the guest integration proxy component?
A. Deploys a Veeam persistent agent on every Windows VM to be processed B. Mounts the VM file system for browsing purposes when performing a restore to remote site C. Deploys a temporary runtime coordination process on every Windows VM to be processed D. Processes VM data, taking the load off the Veeam backup server Correct Answer: C /Reference: : https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/vsphere/guest_interaction_proxy.html QUESTION 6 Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create? A. None B. One C. Three Correct Answer: B /Reference: : Although replica from backup might resemble replica seeding, there is difference between these options: Replica seeding uses the backup file only during the first run of a replication job. To further build VM replica restore points, the replication job addresses the production environment and reads VM data from the source storage. Remote replica from backup uses a backup chain on the backup repository as the only source of data. When building a new VM replica restore point, Veeam Backup & Replication always reads data from the latest restore point in the backup chain, either full or incremental. The backup chain on the backup repository may be created with a backup job or a backup copy job. QUESTION 7 What is replica metadata used for?
A. Storinga set of VM configuration files B. Storing replica temporary cache C. Detecting changed blocks of data between two replica states Correct Answer: C /Reference: : Replica metadata used to store replica checksums. Veeam Backup & Replication uses this file to quickly detect changed blocks of data between two replica states. A metadata file is written to the backup repository. References: QUESTION 8 Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. VMware Storage vmotion B. Failback C. Permanent failover D. FileCopy E. Quick Migration Correct Answer: AE /Reference: : QUESTION 9
Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing? A. Backup copy job B. Replication job C. Backup job D. All of the above are affected by parallel processing Correct Answer: D /Reference: : Backup copy jobs do not support parallel processing. References: QUESTION 10 Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose the 3 appropriate options) A. Export an object/container to a local folder or network drive B. Search for an object/container C. Restore an object/container to a location which is different from original D. Send an object/container as an attachment via email E. Export an object/container as a Personal Folder File (.pst) Correct Answer: ABC /Reference: : QUESTION 11 When configuring an On-Demand Sandbox, when should the Backup Administrator indicate that the Application Group should keep running once the job completes? A. When running a SureBackup job B. When configuring a SureBackup job C. When configuring a Virtual Lab
D. When creating an Application Group Correct Answer: A /Reference: : QUESTION 12 What are some of the benefits of using replication from HP, NetApp or EMC storage snapshot compared to the regular replication process? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. Lower impact on WAN link B. Lower impact on production storage C. Lower RPO D. Lower RTO E. Higher transfer speed Correct Answer: BC /Reference: : QUESTION 13 When should you consider disabling multithreaded data transfer? A. When severaljobs are scheduled to run at the same time B. When the simple deployment scenario is used C. When the backup traffic needs to be routed over a non-production network D. When it is required to keep production storage availability from being impacted by the load from backup tasks
Correct Answer: A /Reference: : schedule several jobs to run at the same time, References: QUESTION 14 Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a Backup to Tape job? (choose the 2 appropriate options) A. Backup B. Backup Copy C. Replication D. Configuration Backup Correct Answer: AB /Reference: : QUESTION 15 Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. Veeam Installer service B. Veeam Backup service C. Veeam Backup Catalog service D. Veeam Data Mover service Correct Answer: AD /Reference: :
QUESTION 16 After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured? A. Check the Use Forever Forward Incremental box B. Enable synthetic full backups and/or active full backups C. Disable synthetic full backups and active full backups D. Enable Transform previous backup chains into rollbacks box Correct Answer: C /Reference: : Do not enable synthetic full backups and/or active full backups. If you enable synthetic and/or active full backups, Veeam Backup & Replicationwill produce a forward incremental backup chain. Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/vsphere/incremental_forever_backup.html QUESTION 17 If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the resume on disconnect feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs? A. Backup B. Cloud Connect backup C. Tape backup D. Replication Correct Answer: C /Reference: : QUESTION 18 Which job type cannot be set to use job-level encryption? (Choose two). A. Backup copy job
B. Configuration backup C. Backup to tape D. Replication job E. Backup job Correct Answer: BD /Reference: : https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/encrypted_jobs.html?ver=95 QUESTION 19 Which of the following are true regarding a synthetic full backup as compared to an active full backup? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. In terms of content and retention,the synthetic full backup file is identical to an active full backup file. B. Synthetic full backups consume more of network bandwidth. C. If the backup repository performance is weak, creating synthetic fulls is the best choice. D. The synthetic full backup file has a.vsb extension whereas the active full has a.vbk extension E. Synthetic fulls impose less load on the production environment. Correct Answer: AE /Reference: : QUESTION 20 How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files? A. Install the Veeam Backup ReplicationRemote Console on a workstation
B. Create a Business View categoryin Veeam ONE C. Use Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager roles D. Create an Active Directory Universal Group Correct Answer: C /Reference: : QUESTION 21 When VMware vsphere CBT is not available, Veeam Backup & Replication: A. Uses Veeam s proprietary B. Sends an e-mail alert that VMware vsphere CBT is disabled C. Resets VMware vsphere CBT which requires to power the VM off D. Runs a new active full backup Correct Answer: A /Reference: : QUESTION 22 Which of the following describes Veeam Data Mover Service function most accurately? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. Analyzes the system, installs and upgrades necessary components and services depending on the role selected for the server B. Deploys and coordinates executable modules that perform main job activities on behalf of Veeam Backup & Replication C. Performs data compression, deduplication and data transfer D. Communicates with the VSS framework during backup, replication and other jobs, and performing recovery tasks Correct Answer: BD /Reference:
: QUESTION 23 It was decided to set up Veeam Backup & Replication to ensure parallel tasks do not impact production storage availability. Which parameters should be adjusted in the I/O Control section of the menu to do this? (Choose the 2 appropriate options) A. Throttle I/O of existing tasks at: B. Turn off parallel processing at: C. Stop assigning new tasks to datastore at: D. Stop processing until the latencyis lower than: Correct Answer: AC /Reference: : QUESTION 24 A Backup Administrator has restored a VM, on Hyper-V, using Instant VM Recovery. Which additional step should be taken to finalize the Instant VM Recovery process? A. Unmount the Instant Recovery VM B. Stop publishing C. Migrate to production D. Delete the Instant Recovery VM Correct Answer: C /Reference: : QUESTION 25 Is it possible to create an active full backup manually? A. Yes, but only via PowerShell. B. Yes, but only using the Active Full option from the shortcut menu of a corresponding job.
C. No, active full backups can be created only according to the schedule. D. Yes, but only if the forward incremental backup mode is used. E. Yes, using the Active Full option from the shortcut menu of a corresponding job or through PowerShell. Correct Answer: B /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/hyperv/active_full_backup.html QUESTION 26 HOTSPOT Match each of the following entities that Veeam Backup & Replication uses to manage tapes with its definition. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
/Reference: QUESTION 27 Which types of data are included in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup? (Choose the 3 appropriate options.) A. Backup infrastructure configuration data B. Full backup of Veeam Backup & Replication Oracle database C. Full backup of Veeam Backup & Replication SQL database D. Replication job configuration E. SMTP settings Correct Answer: ACD /Reference: QUESTION 28 When a file is copied using a backup copy job, which of the following should be the same for the restore point on the source backup repository, and the restore point on the target backup repository? A. Backup repository type B. Encryption key C. Data block size D. Creation frequency Correct Answer: C /Reference: :
The data block size for restore points on the target backup repository is set at the first synchronization cycle of the backup copy job. References: QUESTION 29 Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups? A. Speeds up the backup process. B. Decreases the amount of time the VM is running on a VMware snapshot. C. Helps you avoid creating a VMware snapshot. D. Saves space in the repository. Correct Answer: B /Reference: : QUESTION 30 Which Virtual Lab configurations are available when configuring recovery verification for replicas? (Choose the 3 appropriate options) A. Basic multi-host B. Advanced multi-host C. Advanced single-host D. Basic single-host E. Basic single-network F. Advanced multi-network Correct Answer: BCD /Reference: : QUESTION 31 Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched? A. Replica seeding
B. SureReplica C. Failback of the Replica VM D. Planned Failover of the Replica VM Correct Answer: D /Reference: : QUESTION 32 Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 3 appropriate options) A. HPE StoreVirtual B. HPE EVA Р6000 C. HPE MSA D. HPE StoreVirtual VSA E. HPE StoreServ Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: : QUESTION 33 After a successful replica failover, you decide that you want to switch back to the original VM and permanently transfer the changes that occurred in the replica VM while it was in the Failover State. Which course of action should you choose? A. Change the initial Replication job to reverse the replication
B. Undo Failover C. Failback + Commit Failback D. Permanent Failover Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 34 Which of the following is a prerequisite for installation of the Veeam plug-in for vsphere Web Client? A. Veeam ONE Monitor B. Veeam Backup & Replication C. Veeam Management Pack for System Center D. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/web_plugin_get_started.html?ver=95 QUESTION 35 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Veeam Backup & Replication and EMC Data Domain with DD Boost integration compared to no DD Boost integration? A. Lower RTO B. Fibre Channel support C. Lower network usage D. Enhanced synthetic full backup creation Correct Answer: A
/Reference: QUESTION 36 Which of these repository types can NOT be an extent of the scale-out repository? (Choose two.) A. Another scale-out repository B. A cloud repository C. A CIFS share D. A deduplicating storage appliance E. A Windows server F. A Linux server Correct Answer: AB /Reference: Reference: https://www.veeam.com/blog/ultimate-faq-for-scale-out-backup-repository.html QUESTION 37 How does Veeam Backup & Replication check backup consistency for VMs verified by the SureBackup job? A. CBT reset B. RSA key consistency check C. MD5 check D. CRC check Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surebackup_tests.html?ver=95 QUESTION 38 Which of the following should be taken into account when estimating the amount of disk space necessary to store backups? (Choose two.) A. Type of a disk (thick or thin)
B. Total size of used data for the VMs being backed up C. Veeam Backup & Replication edition D. Hypervisor and host version E. Retention period for backups Correct Answer: BE /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/70/bp_vsphere/estimating_repository_capacity.html QUESTION 39 Which of these functionalities relies on the guest OS file system indexing? A. Multi-OS file-level restore B. Application-aware processing C. Search within Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager D. Zeroing Out Dirty Blocks Correct Answer: B /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/indexing_hiw.html?ver=95 QUESTION 40 Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can leverage storage snapshots? (Choose two.) A. Backup B. Replication C. Backup Copy D. VM Copy Correct Answer: AB
/Reference: QUESTION 41 Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.) A. Remote access B. A mount server in remote restore scenarios C. A configuration backup repository D. Remote PowerShell capabilities E. A default backup proxy Correct Answer: BCD /Reference: QUESTION 42 A Backup Administrator is looking to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate? A. Backup jobs are performed on a regular basis B. Backup jobs run continuously C. Each backup job serves as a source for an appropriate replication job D. Backup jobs can be started manually at any time Correct Answer: B /Reference: : Continuous replication is more reasonable if you want to get minimal RPO (in this case each subsequent job run will start on completion of the previous job run, so the RPO will be equal to the time required to complete a job). QUESTION 43 Veeam Backup & Replication supports which of the following NetApp Data ONTAP modes?
A. Clustered Data ONTAP only B. 7-mode only C. Both 7-mode and Clustered Data ONTAP Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 44 vpower technology is used to enable which of the following features? (Choose three.) A. Replica Failback B. SureBackup C. Veeam Explorer for Active Directory D. Instant VM Recovery E. Multi-OS File-Level Recovery Correct Answer: BDE /Reference: Reference: https://www.vladan.fr/use-veeam-backup-nfs-used-storing-isos-vmware-vsphere-infrastructure/ QUESTION 45 Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware quiescence? (Choose two.) A. You want to enable point-in-time restore for a Microsoft SQL server B. The VM in question is a Linux VM
C. You want Veeam to truncate backup logs for your Exchange server D. You want to use reverse incremental backup mode E. The backup data is to be encrypted Correct Answer: CD /Reference: QUESTION 46 Which of the following are true regarding Quick Backup? (Choose two.) A. Quick Backup can be run for both incremental and reverse incremental backup chains. B. A full backup file will be created by Quick Backup if one does not already exist. C. Quick Backup is supported for separate vcloud Director VMs as well as for vapps. D. From the retention policy perspective, a partial restore point created by Quick Backup is grouped with a regular restore point neighboring it. Correct Answer: AD /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/quick_backup.html?ver=95 QUESTION 47 Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup? A. SMTP settings B. Backup infrastructure configuration data C. Replication job configuration D. All of the above is included Correct Answer: A /Reference:
QUESTION 48 Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed? A. On every managed backup proxy B. On every managed server C. On every managed VMware server D. On every managed Hyper-V or SMB 3.0 server Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/changed_block_tracking.html?ver=95 QUESTION 49 Which of the following is correct regarding Direct NFS Access transport mode? (Choose two.) A. The SCSI hot-add capability of ESXi hosts to attach disks of the backed up VM to the backup proxy VM is used B. VM data is transferred over the LAN C. You can select to failover to this mode, if primary transport modes fail or are unavailable D. Direct NFS mode can be used for restores Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 50 Which of the following is the extension of a configuration backup file? A. The file extension is specified in the configuration backup settings. B..bco C..vbm D..cbo
E..vbk Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 51 Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature? A. Veeam ONE dashboard used to detect orphaned VMware vsphere snapshots that may remain after backup or replication job sessions B. A part of Veeam Explorer for Storage Snapshots responsible for locating the required snapshot for restore C. A Veeam technology used to detect and remove orphaned VMware vsphere snapshots that may remain after backup or replication job sessions D. A Veeam CBT filter driver, used for Instant Recovery in the Microsoft Hyper-V environments Correct Answer: C /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/snapshot_hunter.html?ver=95 QUESTION 52 Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication? A. Veeam ONE is a prerequisite for Veeam Backup & Replication installation B. Veeam ONE can access the infrastructure for potential issues prior to performing backup C. It is recommended to add all of the servers involved in the backup process to Veeam ONE first, and then import the configuration to Veeam Backup & Replication D. Veeam ONE can verify the server you re going to install Veeam Backup and Replication on meets all system requirements Correct Answer: B /Reference:
QUESTION 53 Which of the following are among the requirements for an off-host backup proxy server? (Choose four.) A. The Hyper-V Role must be installed B. The hardware VSS provider must be configured C. Veeam Backup from Storage Snapshot must be enabled D. The proxy server must access the shared storage where the VM s reside E. The version of the Hyper-V host and the off-host backup proxy must match F. Hyper-V must be Windows 2012 or Windows 2012 R2 Correct Answer: ABDF /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/offhost_backup_proxy.html?ver=95 QUESTION 54 Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during the second run of the replication job? A. Replica mapping B. WAN Acceleration for replicas C. Re-IP Rules D. Replica seeding Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/replica_name_vm.html?ver=95 QUESTION 55 A Backup Administrator configures a backup copy job containing several VMs each of which are backed up by different daily jobs. How many backup files will be created as the result of the initial successful run of the backup copy job? (Choose two.) A. One backup file per one VM B. One backup file
C. One backup file per each VM multiplied by the number of existing restore points for the daily backup jobs D. It is impossible to create a backup copy job for this setup E. One backup file per each existing restore point of the daily backup jobs Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 56 Which of the following describes the Partial Site Failover functionality of Veeam Cloud Connect? A. One or several VMs become corrupted and fail over to their replicas on the cloud host, while other VMs will still be running in the production site. B. One or several applications malfunctions and they start running from a web server in cloud set up by SP. C. End users are able to failover to the DR site proactively if they know that the primary VMs are going to go offline (e.g. the production host is going to be patched) D. A cluster is formed out of hosts on the production site and cloud hosts to in case of one or several hosts malfunctions the workloads are passed to the cloud. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 57 Which recovery verification tests can be executed when verifying both backups and replicas? (Choose three.) A. CRC check B. Heartbeat test C. Application test
D. Ping test E. Hardware test Correct Answer: BCD /Reference: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surebackup_tests.html?ver=95 QUESTION 58 Which of the following restore options is NOT available to an administrator account in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager? A. Full VM Recovery B. Application Items Recovery C. File Level Recovery D. Instant Recovery Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 59 Which of the following options should be selected in order to temporarily bring up a production VM that has been previously been replicated to the DR site, while the production VM itself is brought down by a problem? A. Failback of the Replica VM B. Failover Plan C. Planned Failover of the Replica VM D. Failover of the Replica VM Correct Answer: C /Reference:
QUESTION 60 Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup? A. A new.vib file is created, no transform operation is involved. B. A transform operation re-builds the oldest full backup file in the chain to include changes of the incremental backup following the full backup. C. Veeam Backup & Replication immediately deletes the earliest increment, no transform operation is involved. D. Veeam Backup & Replication deletes the oldest full backup file with the following chain of increments. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 61 After the Failover Now option is chosen and a Replica VM is started up on the DR side, which options are available? (Choose three.) A. VMware Storage vmotion B. Failback C. Planned Failover D. Permanent Failover E. Undo failover F. Quick Migration Correct Answer: BDE /Reference: Reference: https://www.veeam.com/blog/replicating-vmware-vms-with-veeam-everything-you-need-to-know-about-replica-failover.html QUESTION 62 A virtual machine has been permanently deleted in production but a replica is running in the Disaster Recovery data center. Which strategy would failback the virtual machine to production while saving both recovery time and network utilization? A. Perform failback through WAN accelerators
B. Manually enable parallel processing for failback operation C. Restore this VM up-front from a backup and then perform a failback Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 63 If the Backup Administrator has to perform a backup over a high-latency, low bandwidth network link, the disruptions to the backup process can be avoided by: A. Adjusting the compression and deduplication settings for this job B. Making a direct backup using WAN Accelerators C. Making a backup locally and utilizing WAN Accelerators for the backup copy job Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 64 When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order? A. No order. VMs are started in parallel B. The order of priority as specified in the Application Group settings C. The order as they appear in the schedule D. The order specified in the Virtual Lab settings Correct Answer: B /Reference:
QUESTION 65 Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature? A. Standard B. VeeamZIP (free) C. Enterprise D. Enterprise Plus Correct Answer: C /Reference: Reference: https://www.veeam.com/blog/introducing-scale-out-backup-repository-coming-in-availability-suite-v9.html QUESTION 66 Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.) A. Performs deep real-time VM monitoring B. Allows cross-hypervisor restores. C. Allows restoring VMs to new locations. D. Delivers zero downtime in case of disaster or disruption. E. Can restore several VMs at once. Correct Answer: CE /Reference: QUESTION 67 Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vsphere environment? (Choose two.) A. Lower Recovery PointObjective (RPO) B. Lower impact on WAN link during off-site backups C. Lower impact on production datastores
D. Higher transfer speed from production datastores E. Lower Recovery Time Objective (RTO) Correct Answer: AD /Reference: QUESTION 68 What would be the primary benefit of replication from backup files compared to a regular replication process? A. Higher speed of transfer over the WAN link B. Lower RTO C. Lower RPO D. Lower impact on production storage Correct Answer: D /Reference: : Reference: https://www.veeam.com/backup-version-standard-enterprise-editions-comparison.html QUESTION 69 After selecting Incremental mode in the job settings, which setting is required to ensure Forever Forward Incremental Backup Mode is configured? A. Disable synthetic full backups and active full backups B. Enable the Transform previous backup chains into rollbacks box C. Enable synthetic full backups and/or active full backups D. Enable the Use Forever Forward Incremental box Correct Answer: A /Reference:
: Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/incremental_forever_backup.html?ver=95 QUESTION 70 Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature? A. Veeam Backup& Replication creates its own cloud for storing VM data B. Both service providers and tenants have to own a special type of Veeam Cloud Connect license C. Veeam Backup & Replication offers data encryption capabilities to protect data stored in the cloud D. Backup Copy Jobs, utilizing a Cloud Repository as a source Backup Repository, are supported Correct Answer: C /Reference: : QUESTION 71 Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.) A. The Microsoft VSS is unable to quiesce/ freeze Microsoft Exchange for more than 20 seconds B. It is important to utilize native hypervisor quiescence instead of Microsoft VSS C. The Microsoft Exchange VSS Writer will need to be manually installed, otherwise the backup will not be in a consistent state. This can result in data loss during restores D. If Microsoft Exchange has to be kept frozen for more than 20 seconds, the Veeam VSS writer holds the freeze operation for the necessary amount of time Correct Answer: AD /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/persistent_snapshots.html?ver=95 QUESTION 72 HOTSPOT Match the following Veeam resource with the corresponding usage example:
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
/Reference: QUESTION 73 When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification? A. When static IP Mapping will be used to verify at least some of the VM replicas B. When the VM replicas being verified are on separate ESXi hosts C. When the Virtual Lab is created on the same ESXi host where VMs replicas are located D. When all the VM replicas being verified are connected to different networks Correct Answer: B /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surereplica_vlab_limitations.html?ver=95 QUESTION 74 Which mechanism allows network traffic to flow into the virtual lab while protecting the production environment from the contents of the virtual lab? A. Configured alias record in the production DNS server B. Configured alias record at the proxy appliance C. A routing table configured in VirtualLab settings D. Veeam s proprietary filtering mechanism E. IP Masquerading Correct Answer: E /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/surebackup_ip_masquerading.html?ver=95
QUESTION 75 A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration? A. The scenario is not supported B. Place on Veeam Data Mover Service at the production site C. Place one Veeam Data Mover Service at the remote site D. Mount the NFS share on a Linux server at the remote site, then add the server as a Veeam Backup Repository E. Mount the NFS share on a Linux server at the production site, then add the server as a Veeam Backup Repository Correct Answer: D /Reference: : QUESTION 76 Which of the following statements are true in regards to the Veeam plug-in for VMware vsphere Web Client? (Choose two.) A. Automatically deleting a VeeamZIP backup after a certain time interval is not possible if created through VMware vsphere Web Client B. To open Veeam ONE reports, accounts must also be included in the Veeam ONE Users or Veeam ONE Administrators groups C. Encrypted backups are not possible if created through VMware vsphere Web Client D. The Backup sub-menu offers three options: VeeamZIP, VeeamZIP to, and QuickBackup Correct Answer: AB /Reference: : QUESTION 77 Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.) A. FalconStor B. HPE StoreOnce C. ExaGrid
D. NEC HYDRAstor E. EMC Data Domain Correct Answer: BCE /Reference: : Reference: https://bp.veeam.expert/resource_planning/repository_type_dedupe.html QUESTION 78 Which of the following is leveraged as part of the Network Mode transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vsphere environments? A. VMware VIX API B. VMware VADP C. SCSI hot-add capability D. NFS client Correct Answer: B /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/transport_modes.html?ver=95 QUESTION 79 Which of the following is the extension of a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup file? A..bco B..vbk C..vbm D..cbo E. The file extension is specified in the configuration backup settings. Correct Answer: A
/Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/export_vbr_config.html?ver=95 QUESTION 80 Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered? A. When it is necessary to limit the maximum throughput of traffic going from source to target data mover services B. When it is required to keep production storage availability from being impacted by the load from backup tasks C. When the network capacity is not sufficient to support multiple data transfer connections D. When the backup traffic must be routed to a specific network Correct Answer: D /Reference: : Reference: https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/select_backup_network.html?ver=95 QUESTION 81 When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media? A. If the original backup file is not encrypted B. If the Tape protection option is selected by the user C. If the hardware encryption is disabled at the tape device level or not supported D. By default for all of the tape jobs Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/encryption_tape.html?ver=95 QUESTION 82 If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?
A. Only when a new active full backup is created B. At the next run of the job C. Only when you rescan the repository that stores the backup files D. Only when any kind of full backup is created Correct Answer: B /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/backup_copy_settings_storage.html?ver=95 (see note) QUESTION 83 When a Windows server is added to Veeam Backup & Replication using the Add Server Wizard, which components are always installed to the server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options.) A. Veeam Installer Service B. Veeam Data Mover Service C. Veeam Backup Restful API Service D. Veeam Backup Shell Correct Answer: AB /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/hyperv/windows_server_before_begin.html?ver=95 QUESTION 84 Which of the following is required to enable Tape Parallel Processing? A. The source repository for the tape job is a Scale-Out Backup Repository B. The tape library has multiple drives C. Two tape jobs are processes at the same time D. The tape drive has multiple tapes Correct Answer: B
/Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/backup/free/parallel_processing.html QUESTION 85 Which of the following object types can be added to the Add Objects option when creating a backup job? (Choose the 3 appropriate options.) A. VMs grouped by vapp B. VMs grouped by vswitch C. VMs grouped by SMB3 file share D. VMs grouped by vsphere tag E. VMs grouped by Folder F. VMs grouped by Veeam ONE business view category Correct Answer: ABE /Reference: QUESTION 86 Which of the following best describes VMware Tools quiescence? A. Optimizing the data size of the VM backup files B. Quiescing the VM but no application-specific will be performed C. Creating a file index for the VM guest OS during backup D. Truncating the application logs upon successful backup Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/quiescence_choice.html?ver=95 QUESTION 87
When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting? A. If LabTech is installed in the infrastructure B. If Microsoft System Center Operations Manager is installed in the infrastructure C. If the infrastructure contains Microsoft Hyper-V hosts D. If more than 6 sockets need to be protected Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 88 Which permission roles can be assigned in Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager for delegation of responsibilities? (Choose the 3 appropriate options.) A. Restore Operator B. db_owner C. Portal Administrator D. Power User E. Portal User Correct Answer: ACE /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/veeam_backup_em_roles.html?ver=95 QUESTION 89 Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server?
(Choose the 2 appropriate options.) A. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager is installed B. All Veeam Backup & Replication jobs are stopped C. All of the servers added to the Veeam Backup & Replication infrastructure are online D. None of the jobs are targeting the repository where the configuration backup is located E. Configuration Backup was created using version 8.0 Update 3 or newer Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 90 Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories? (Choose the 2 appropriate options.) A. Exagrid deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server B. EMC DataDomain deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server C. Veeam vpower NFS Service is only supported on Linux based Backup Repositories D. HPE StoreOnce deduplication appliance requires a Veeam Gateway Server E. Veeam vpower NFS Service is supported on both Windows based and Linux based Backup Repositories Correct Answer: DE /Reference: QUESTION 91 Which of the following suggestions is considered best practices for the Veeam Backup & Replication integration with Dell EMC Data Domain? A. Ensure parallel processing is disabled for jobs targeting Dell EMC Data Domain backup repository B. Locate the gateway server dose to the deduplication appliance C. Ensure the reverse incremental backup method is utilized
D. Ensure the high compression level is utilized Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 92 Which can be used if the user key for an encrypted backup is forgotten or lost? A. Veeam Support can supply a metakey after employee and company identity has been verified B. There is no way to restore the data in this case C. Veeam Backup Enterprise Manager can decrypt using a master key also called Enterprise Manager key D. Veeam ONE Encryption Key report will provide all required password(s) E. Veeam Search Server can scan all credentials and report if any saved credential will decrypt the data Correct Answer: C /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/em/em_manage_keys.html?ver=95 QUESTION 93 A Backup Administrator has setup a Backup Job, utilizing Reverse Incremental backup mode. After the first successful backup, an On-Demand Sandbox is deployed and started. How will the On-Demand Sandbox be affected if the Backup Job is started? A. The On-Demand Sandbox will not be affected and the Backup Job will start as scheduled B. Veeam Backup & Replication automatically powers off virtual machines in the On-Demand Sandbox/Virtual Lab and stops the SureBackup job immediately C. The SureBackup job will fail immediately D. The backup job will fail immediately Correct Answer: B /Reference:
QUESTION 94 Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance? A. Routing requests from the Virtual Lab are sent directly to the production environment B. Virtual machines started in the Virtual Lab cannot be accessed through the network C. Manual recovery verification cannot be performed D. Only virtual machine replicas can be verified Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 95 Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover: A. Undoing the failover switches the replica to the Failback state B. After the Undo Failover option is performed, the VM replica is used as the original VM C. All the changes performed at the replica are transferred to the original VM D. Undoing the failover switches the replica back to the primary VM, discarding all changes that were made to the replica while it was running Correct Answer: D /Reference: Reference https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/failover_plan_undo.html?ver=95