CIS 83 Midterm Spring 2004 Answer Sheet Name: Score: Grade: Question Answer Question Answer 1 A B C D E F 51 A B C D E F 2 A B C D E F 52 A B C D E F 3 A B C D E F 53 A B C D E F 4 A B C D E F 54 A B C D E F 5 A B C D E F 55 A B C D E F 6 A B C D E F 56 A B C D E F 7 A B C D E F 57 A B C D E F 8 A B C D E F 58 A B C D E F 9 A B C D E F 59 A B C D E F 10 A B C D E F 60 A B C D E F 11 A B C D E F 61 A B C D E F 12 A B C D E F 62 A B C D E F 13 A B C D E F 63 A B C D E F 14 A B C D E F 64 A B C D E F 15 A B C D E F 65 A B C D E F 16 A B C D E F 66 A B C D E F 17 A B C D E F 67 A B C D E F 18 A B C D E F 68 A B C D E F 19 A B C D E F 69 A B C D E F 20 A B C D E F 70 A B C D E F 21 A B C D E F 71 A B C D E F 22 A B C D E F 72 A B C D E F 23 A B C D E F 73 A B C D E F 24 A B C D E F 74 A B C D E F 25 A B C D E F 75 A B C D E F 26 A B C D E F 76 A B C D E F 27 A B C D E F 77 A B C D E F 28 A B C D E F 78 A B C D E F 29 A B C D E F 79 A B C D E F 30 A B C D E F 80 A B C D E F 31 A B C D E F 81 A B C D E F 32 A B C D E F 82 A B C D E F 33 A B C D E F 83 A B C D E F 34 A B C D E F 84 A B C D E F 35 A B C D E F 85 A B C D E F 36 A B C D E F 86 A B C D E F 37 A B C D E F 87 A B C D E F 38 A B C D E F 88 A B C D E F 39 A B C D E F 89 A B C D E F 40 A B C D E F 90 A B C D E F 41 A B C D E F 91 A B C D E F 42 A B C D E F 92 A B C D E F 43 A B C D E F 93 A B C D E F 44 A B C D E F 94 A B C D E F 45 A B C D E F 95 A B C D E F 46 A B C D E F 96 A B C D E F 47 A B C D E F 97 A B C D E F 48 A B C D E F 98 A B C D E F 49 A B C D E F 99 A B C D E F 50 A B C D E F 100 A B C D E F 1
Midterm Read all answers carefully and choose the best answer. Some answers may be partially correct, but there may be a better answer to choose from. Only one choice per multiple choice question. Advanced IP Addressing Management 1. If you have a /30 netmask or prefix-length, your subnet mask is: a. 0.0.0.252 b. 255.255.255.252 c. 255.255.255.248 d. 0.0.0.248 2. Which of the following included the key feature of supernetting? a. CIDR b. NAT c. VLSM d. Link-state routing 3. Which of the following is used to map private internal IP addresses to registered public IP addresses? a. IP Unnumbered b. CIDR c. VLSM d. NAT 4. What does VLSM do? a. Specifies how a subnetted network can use more than one subnet mask. b. Allows a router to change the subnet mask of a packet. c. Enables classless routing on a router d. Allows an IP address of an IP packet to use different subnet mask as it travels between different networks. 5. A long term solution to IP address depletion is: a. NAT b. CIDR c. IPv5 d. IPv6 OSPF 6. What is the default value for the hello interval timer for a multi-access or point-to-point network in OSPF? a. 10 seconds b. 20 seconds c. 30 seconds d. 40 seconds 7. (True/False) The process-id used to configure OSPF (router ospf process-id) must be the same on all routers in the OSPF routing domain. a. True b. False 8. What is used to elect a Designated Router? a. Hello Protocol b. Link-state routing update c. TCP d. LSA 2
9. A router with which of the following will be elected the Designated Router? a. Highest Router ID b. Lowest Router ID c. Highest Router Priority (ip ospf priority) d. Lowest Router Priority (ip ospf priority) 10. During the selection of the Designated Router, if two or more routers have the same OSPF router priority, what is used to break the tie? a. Router ID b. Bandwidth value c. Delay value d. Both B and C 11. If a DR router goes down: a. The BDR temporarily becomes the DR while the selection process determines a new DR. b. The BDR becomes the DR, and a new selection process begins for a BDR. c. The BDR becomes the DR, only while a new election process for a new DR takes place. d. A new selection process for the DR begins and the BDR remains as the Backup Designated Router. 12. If all of the commands below are configured on the router, which one will it use first to determine the Router ID? a. Loopback IP address b. Highest active interface IP address c. The OSPF command: router-id d. Hostname 13. An LSU packet that includes an LSA for All OSPF Routers has the multicast IP address of: a. 224.0.0.4 b. 224.0.0.5 c. 224.0.0.6 d. 224.0.0.7 14. In configuring OSPF, the wildcard mask in the network statement is used: a. To identify which interfaces on the router will be part of the OSPF routing process b. for OSPF access-lists. c. To determine the DR d. allow route filtering 15. What is the administrative distance for OSPF? a. 90 b. 100 c. 110 d. 120 16. OSPF is which type of routing protocol? a. Distance vector b. Advanced distance vector c. Link State d. Path vector 17. Which state are routers interfaces in when their link state databases are the same as their neighboring routers? a. Full b. Exchange c. Loading d. Exstart 3
18. Which of the following is the main advantage in using a loopback address for the Router ID in OSPF? a. Allows the configuration to include a no keepalive. b. Unlike physical interface, it never fails (goes down) unless the router fails. c. It keeps the interface from timing out every 40 seconds. d. Keeps debug and other messages from interrupting the command line. 19. Which OSPF network statement should be used so that it will only be enabled on an interface with the IP Address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252? a. network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.252 area 0 b. network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 c. network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.252 area 0 d. network 192.168.1.0 252.0.0.0 area 0 EIGRP 20. EIGRP uses which algorithm to track all the routes advertised by neighbors and to prevent routing loops? If the primary route fails, this algorithm will look for a backup route in its topology and neighbor tables.: a. Bellman-Ford b. Dijkstra c. DUAL d. Feasible Successor e. Cisco Proprietary Algorithm (CPA) 21. When comparing the metrics in EIGRP and IGRP routes: a. EIGRP is 256 times greater b. EIGRP is 32 times greater c. IGRP is 32 times less d. IGRP is 256 times less e. They are exactly the same 22. A neighbor meets the if the reported distance by the neighbor is smaller than or equal to the feasible distance of this router. a. Reported Distance b. Feasible Condition c. Feasible Successor d. Successor e. Reported Condition 23. is the distance (cost, metric) towards a destination as advertised by an upstream neighbor. a. Reported Distance b. Feasible Condition c. Feasible Successor d. Successor e. Feasible Distance 24. What must be done for IGRP routes so that they will be automatically redistributed into EIGRP without any additional configuration? a. Whether or not the AS Numbers for IGRP and EIGRP are the same, nothing needs to be done as redistribution will happen automatically between the two routing protocols. b. You must use the redistribute command c. The AS Numbers for IGRP and EIGRP must be the same for redistribution to happen automatically between the two routing protocols. d. Both B and C 4
25. What is contained in an EIGRP neighbor table, show ip eigrp neighbors? a. The network topology b. Adjacent routers c. Any router that it has a route to d. All of the above 26. What information is found in an EIGRP topology table, show ip eigrp topology all-links? a. Link State information for EIGRP b. The route entries for all routing protocols c. The routing table for all routed protocols d. All successors and feasible successors 27. What EIGRP routes are in an IP routing table, show ip route? a. Successors b. Feasible successors c. Adjacent neighbors d. Both A and B 28. Which command will turn off summarization on a router using EIGRP? a. no auto-summary b. no summary c. disable auto-summary d. disable summary 29. In the routing table, which letter shows that the route was learned via EIGRP? a. E b. I c. G d. D 30. EIGRP can load balance between unequal cost paths. a. TRUE b. FALSE 31. What is the administrative distance for EIGRP? a. 90 b. 100 c. 120 d. 150 32. By default, which metrics are used to determine the routing metric for EIGRP? a. Bandwidth b. Delay c. Reliability d. Load e. Both A and B f. All of the above 33. Which metrics can be used to determine the routing metric for EIGRP? a. Bandwidth and Delay only b. Reliability and Load only c. Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability and Load only d. Bandwidth, Delay, Reliability Load, and MTU only 5
Spanning Tree Protocol 34. Spanning Tree Protocol prevents bridging loops by: a. load balancing between switches b. blocking broadcasts c. blocking redundant paths d. selecting best paths using the routing table 35. STP is which IEEE standard? a. 802.1Q b. 802.1D c. 802.3 d. 802.1T 36. The Bridge ID is composed of the: a. Bridge Priority b. MAC address c. Port ID d. Both A and B e. Both A and C 37. The default Bridge Priority on Cisco switches is: a. 1 b. 255 c. 32,768 d. MAC address of the switch 38. The STP Root Bridge is the one with the: a. lowest Bridge ID b. highest Bridge ID c. lowest Bridge Priority d. highest Bridge Priority 39. In the election of the Root Bridge for STP, if Bridge Priorities are equal, then the bridge with the becomes the Root Bridge. a. Lowest Port ID b. Highest Port ID c. Lowest MAC Address d. Highest MAC Address 40. Every non-root Bridge will select: a. one root port that is closest to the Root Bridge b. one root port that is with the highest port priority c. one designated port that is closest to the Root Bridge d. all forwarding ports as root ports 41. Which of the following is not a STP port state? a. Disabled b. Blocking c. Learning d. Down e. Listening f. Forwarding 6
VLANs and VLAN Trunking 42. VLANs provide segmentation based on: a. collision domains b. broadcast domains c. network domains d. physical domains 43. If a switch receives a layer 2 broadcast on an interface, by default it will: a. flood it out all ports that belong to that same VLAN except the incoming port b. flood it out all ports including the incoming port c. filter out the broadcast d. send it to the router 45. Which trunking protocol is an IEEE standard? a. 802.1Q b. ISL c. 802.1D d. Room-222 46. Which VTP mode allows you to create, modify and delete VLANs for multiple switches? a. Server b. Client c. Transparent d. All of the above 47. Which of the following trunking protocols is Cisco proprietary? a. 802.1Q b. ISL c. 802.1D d. STP 48. Which protocol negotiates trunking between two switches on either end of a link? a. DTP b. STP c. 802.1Q d. VTP 49. (True/False) VTP can be used to create VLANs and for that VLANs information to be propagated to other switches. However, ports on the switches which do not belong to the default VLAN (VLAN 1) still need to be assigned to the appropriate VLANs a. True b. False 50. Which Cisco proprietary protocol allows the connected interfaces on two switches to negotiate whether or not the link will be a trunk link or an access only link? a. DTP b. DISL c. 802.1Q d. VTP 7