JUNIPER JN0-100 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

Transcription

1 JUNIPER JN0-100 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS Number: JN0-100 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 48.8 ht t p:/ / w w w.gratisexam.com/ JUNIPER JN0-100 EXAM QUESTIONS & ANSWERS Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-JUNOS)

2 Testinside QUESTION 1 Which major J-Web menu should you use to upgrade the JUNOS software on the router? A. Monitor B. Maintain C. Diagnose D. Configuration /Reference: QUESTION 2 How many IP addresses can be configured in a given interface? A. one primary and one secondary IP address B. one IP address C. as many IP addresses as you want D. one primary and multiple secondary IP addresses /Reference: QUESTION 3 On a Juniper router, what is the default file used for syslog messages? A. system B. errors C. security D. messages Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 4 Which command is a valid way to view the status of an interface? A. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 extensive B. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 status C. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 health-info D. > show interfaces fe-0/0/0 verbose

3 Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 5 Which statement is correct about the validate option when upgrading JUNOS software? ht t p:/ / w w w.gratisexam.com/ A. It will check the MD5 checksum of the install package. B. It will check if the device meets the memory requirements for the install package. C. It will check the compatibility of the configuration with the install package. D. It will check if the device meets the storage requirement for the install package. /Reference: QUESTION 6 Click the Exhibit button. The routing policy shown in the exhibit has been applied as an export policy under protocols OSPF. The static route for destination /24 is not being advertised as it was expected. [edit policy-options policy-statement accept-10] lab@london# show term 1 { from protocol static; then reject; term 2 { from { protocol static; route-filter /24 exact; then accept; How can the configuration be corrected to allow the route to be advertised? A. rename term 2 to term 1 B. rename term 1 to term 3 C. insert term 1 after term 2 /Reference:

4 QUESTION 7 What represents the decimal equivalence of ? A B C D /Reference: QUESTION 8 On a Juniper Router, where is the JUNOS software located? A. EPROM B. Zip drive C. hard drive D. compact flash Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 9 What is the interface connecting the routing engine to the packet forwarding engine called? A. Loopback 0 B. management C. internal (fxp1) D. control interface /Reference: QUESTION 10 For which two functions is the Routing Engine responsible? (Choose two.) A. packet forwarding B. queuing functions C. routing protocol control D. JUNOS software operation

5 D /Reference: QUESTION 11 Which statement is true about the internal link between the Routing Engine and the Packet-Forwarding Engine? A. It is only used for exception traffic. B. It is an FE link called fxp2. C. It is rate-limited to avoid DDOS attacks. D. It is only used to send the forwarding-table from the Routing Engine to the Packet- Forwarding Engine. /Reference: QUESTION 12 In which mode are users allowed to configure the device, including interfaces, protocols, user access, and system hardware properties? A. priviledged mode B. configuration mode C. monitoring mode D. operational mode /Reference: QUESTION 13 The auto-complete feature in the JUNOS CLI is triggered by which method? A. space bar for both command and variable completion B. space bar for command completion; tab key for variable completion C. space bar for variable completion; tab key for command completion D. tab key for variable and command completion; space bar for command completion Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 14 You are at the system level. Which two would allow you to see the protocol's level candidate configuration? (Choose two.)

6 A. exit configuration-mode <enter> show protocols B. exit configuration-mode <enter> show configuration protocols C. top <enter> show protocols D. top show protocols D /Reference: QUESTION 15 You enter configuration mode with the configure command. You need to abort the changes that you have made and start again with a fresh copy of the active configuration. Which command should you use? A. rollback 0 B. load active C. reset config D. clear candidate config Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 16 You have just issued the command commit confirmed and your network continues to be operational with no further changes required. You issue a commit and-quit. A short time later, users start complaining about network problems. Which commands (in order) need to be entered to resolve this issue? A. >commit confirmed B. >configure #rollback 1 #commit C. >configure #commit confirmed and-quit D. >configure /Reference: QUESTION 17 Which command would allow you to compare two files stored on your router?

7 A. file show filename1 compare filename2 B. file compare files filename1 filename2 C. compare files filename1 filename 2 D. user@host> compare filename1 filename2 /Reference: QUESTION 18 Which services must be enabled on a router to access JWEB? A. web-management{ http; B. remote-access profile{ http; C. remote-access profile{ web-gui; D. web-management{ web-gui; Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 19 How can you reset your router or switch to factory defaults? A. reset configuration B. load factory-default C. load override default D. set default configuration /Reference: QUESTION 20 After factory-defaults have been loaded, which two syslog files will be present in the configuration? A. system and chassisd B. syslog-messages and NVRAM C. messages and interactive-commands D. authorization and events

8 /Reference: QUESTION 21 Which three steps are considered part of the initial configuration? (Choose three.) A. SNMP B. hostname C. root password D. user password E. management access interface CE /Reference: QUESTION 22 What are two valid initial configuration methods supported on Juniper routers? (Choose two) A. CLI B. J-Web C. JUNOScope D. PCMCIA flash card Correct Answer: AB /Reference: QUESTION 23 Which commnand would correctly define a router's host-name? A. # set ip host-name B. > set ip host-name C. # set system host-name D. > set system host-name /Reference: QUESTION 24 Which command would correctly set a router's date and time?

9 A. # set date B. # set system time C. > set date D. > set system time /Reference: QUESTION 25 Which two statements are true about the rescue configuration file? (Choose two.) A. It gets updated automatically when you commit. B. You need to create it by issuing request system configuration rescue save. C. It is rollback file number 50 and you can recover it by issuing rollback 50. D. You can load it by entering rollback rescue. D /Reference: QUESTION 26 Which command will save the current active configuration as the rescue configuration? A. # save rescue B. # save rescue configuration C. > request system configuration rescue save D. > request rescue-configuration save current /Reference: QUESTION 27 Which two statements are true regarding interface properties? (Choose two.) A. MTU and speed must be configured under each unit. B. Physical parameters such as MTU, duplex mode, and speed are configured under the interface name. C. IP and IPv6 addresses are configured under a unit-number. D. DLCI numbers, VPI/VCI values, and VLAN tags are physical parameters. C

10 /Reference: QUESTION 28 Which CLI command displays packet and byte counts for an interface in real-time? A. monitor traffic B. show interfaces C. monitor interface D. show traffic counts /Reference: QUESTION 29 Which CLI command displays error statistics for an interface in real-time? A. monitor traffic B. show interfaces C. monitor interface D. show interfaces extensive /Reference: QUESTION 30 What is used to segment larger networks into smaller networks? A. supernet masks B. subnet masks C. wildcard masks D. route filtering /Reference: QUESTION 31 Click the Exhibit button. show route protocol static inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) + = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both /27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13 > to via fe-0/0/ /26 *[Static/5] 00:03:13 > to via ge-0/0/ /27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13

11 > to via ge-0/0/ /28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06 > to via ge-0/0/0.0 Using the route table shown in the exhibit, what will be the next-hop IP address used for a destination IP address of ? (Assume the only routes to this destination are static routes.) A B C D /Reference: QUESTION 32 Click the Exhibit button. Given the routing entries shown in the exhibit, which next-hop IP address will be used for the destination IP address ? (Assume only static routes are available for the destination.) user@host> show route protocol static inet.0: 12 destinations, 12 routes (12 active, 0 holddown, 0 hidden) + = Active Route, - = Last Active, * = Both /27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13 > to via fe-0/0/ /28 *[Static/5] 00:03:13 > to via ge-0/0/ /27 *[Static/5] 00:03:13 > to via ge-0/0/ /28 *[Static/5] 00:01:06 > to via ge-0/0/0.0 A B C D Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 33 Which protocol family is required prior to assigning an IP address to an interface? A. family ip B. family ip6 C. family inet D. family inet4

12 /Reference: QUESTION 34 Which command configures an address of with a mask of on interface ge-0/0/0? A. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address B. set ip interface ge-0/0/0 address /24 C. set interface ge-0/0/0 ip4 address mask D. set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address /24 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 35 Which statement is correct about logical units on Juniper Router interfaces? A. Logical units are used only when a Layer 2 identifier is present such as a VLAN. B. A logical unit of 0 is required when using a frame-relay DLCI. C. A logical unit is always required. D. Logical units are not required unless ATM or 802.1Q VLAN tagging is configured. /Reference: QUESTION 36 After issuing the show interfaces terse command, you notice that the status of one interface is "up down". What does this indicate?" A. Layer 1 on the interface is up but Layer 2 is down. B. Layer 2 on the interface is up but Layer 3 has not been configured. C. The interface is administratively up but the link status is down. D. The interface is up but has been administratively turned off. /Reference: QUESTION 37 Which option is correct to configure the maximum transmit packet size of a Fast Ethernet interface? A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 ethernet-options mtu 1200 B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 mtu 1200

13 C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 mtu 1200 D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 mtu 1200 /Reference: QUESTION 38 Which two statements are correct regarding units in JUNOS? (Choose two.) A. Units in JUNOS are always required for any interface configured with logical addresses such as IP and IPv6. B. Units in JUNOS are only required when you are configuring sub-interfaces for inter-vlan routing. C. Unit numbers must match the DLCI or VCI numbers configured on the interface. D. Unit 0 is the only value allowed on interfaces running HDLC, PPP, or for Ethernet interfaces not doing VLAN-tagging. Correct Answer: AD /Reference: QUESTION 39 Which two are correct when configuring an IP address for a Fast Ethernet interface? (Choose two.) A. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 address /24 B. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 family inet address /24 C. set interfaces fe-0/0/0.0 address /24 D. set interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 0 family inet address /24 D /Reference: QUESTION 40 The interface ge-0/2/3 is located in which flexible PIC concentrator slot? A. 0 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: A /Reference:

14 QUESTION 41 Which two are valid configurations of an interface? (Choose two.) A. [edit interfaces] lo0 { unit 0 { family inet { address /32; A. [edit interfaces] lo0 { unit 0 { family inet { address /24; B. [edit interfaces] fe-0/0/0 { unit 0 { family inet { address /32; C. [edit interfaces] Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 42 Which logical unit number must be configured on an interface using PPP encapsulation? A. unit 0 B. unit 1 C. unit 100 D. unit 255 Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 43 Which statement is true about configuring a back-to-back connection frame-relay on Juniper Routers? A. Both DTE and DCE will send keep-alives by default so no special configuration is required. B. The circuit is negotiated automatically so no special configuration is required. C. All equipment is by default DTE, one side should be set to DCE.

15 D. All equipment is by default DCE, one side should be set to DTE. /Reference: QUESTION 44 Which two media types support asynchronous transfer mode? (Choose two.) A. T3 B. SONET C. Gigabit-Ethernet D. EIA/TIA-232 serial Correct Answer: AB /Reference: QUESTION 45 Which user authentication methods are available in JUNOS? A. MD5 and SHA B. RADIUS and TACACS only C. Local User Database D. Local user Database, RADIUS, and TACACS+ Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 46 A router has been configured with the settings shown below: [edit] user@host# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus ]; The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers are not accessible? A. The user lab will not be able to login. B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login. C. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the router is unable to authenticate due to the authentication servers not responding. D. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user.

16 /Reference: QUESTION 47 A router has been configured with the authentication order settings shown below: [edit] user@host# show system authentication-order authentication-order [ radius tacplus password ]; The router also has a local database that contains the user lab with password lab123. What would happen if both the RADIUS and the TACACS servers respond with a reject for user lab? A. The user lab will not be able to login. B. The user lab will be authenticated against the local database and will be able to login. C. The user will be able to login only if tries to login as the root user. D. The user lab will receive an error message indicating the username and password provided could not be found on the radius and tacacs servers. /Reference: QUESTION 48 You have been asked to configure a login class which will permit its users to view and edit the configuration. The class should only allow the configuration of the interfaces and firewall heirarchies. Which configuration correctly accomplishes this? A. accept-commands "(configure)"; accept-configuration "(interfaces firewall)"; deny-configuration "(groups)"; B. permissions [ clear network reset view ]; allow-commands "(configure)"; allow-configuration "(interfaces) (firewall)"; deny-configuration "(groups)"; C. permissions [ clear network reset view ]; permit-commands "(configure)"; permit-configuration "(interfaces) (firewall)"; deny-configuration "(groups)"; D. permissions [ clear network reset view ]; /Reference: QUESTION 49 How are the commands a user is allowed to enter defined in JUNOS? A. Permissions are configured individually for each user. B. Users are associated with user classes, and each class defines the permissions for entering commands. C. There are four default classes with different permissions and you can only use these four. D. Permissions are associated with each user ID.

17 /Reference: QUESTION 50 Which two statements about login classes correctly define their usage within the JUNOS software? (Choose two.) A. A different login class must be configured for each user. B. Individual commands can be explicitly allowed or denied. C. A user must be assigned to one of the default login classes. D. Each login class is associated with one or more permissions flags. D /Reference: QUESTION 51 What is the primary syslog file? A. /var/syslog-file B. /var/syslog C. /var/log/messages D. /log-file /Reference: QUESTION 52 What is the default local location for syslog and trace files? A. /log B. /home/log C. /var/log D. /etc/log /Reference: QUESTION 53 You delete a trace options file and later notice that no new entries are being written to this file. What would

18 allow the entries to be written to the file again? A. Issue a commit of the current configuration. B. Issue a commit full of the current configuration. C. Issue a commit all of the current configuration. C. Issue a commit confirmed of the current configuration. /Reference: QUESTION 54 Which three statements are true regarding the Network Time Protocol (NTP) in JUNOS platforms? (Choose three.) A. MD5 authentication is supported. B. A client always synchronizes to a server even when the difference between the server clock and the local clock differs by a large amount. C. JUNOS software can provide a primary time reference. D. The boot-server configuration allows a router to synchronize its clock when it boots up, regardless of the offset between the NTP clock source and its internal clock. E. It is useful to correlate timestamps on log files and other events for troubleshooting and forensics. Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: QUESTION 55 What is the maximum difference between a NTP server's clock and the system clock for synchronization to be successful? A. 60 seconds B. 120 seconds C. 600 seconds D seconds Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 56 Where are files queued for transmission when using the configuration archive transfer-on- commit function? A. /var/config B. /var/queue C. /var/transfer/queue D. /var/transfer/config

19 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 57 Which command configures the router to send SNMP link-related notifications such as up-down transitions and line status changes? A. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group link-status B. set snmp trap-group my-trap-group categories link C. set snmp log link-status D. set snmp trap link-status /Reference: QUESTION 58 Which naming convention is used by Juniper Routers when archiving their configurations to a remote server? A. yyyymmdd_hhmmss_host-name_juniper.conf.gz B. host-name_juniper.conf.gz_yyyymmdd_hhmmss C. yyyymmdd_hhmmss_host-name_juniper.conf D. host-name_juniper.conf_yyyymmdd_hhmmss /Reference: QUESTION 59 Which command allows you to view interface usage details in real-time? A. user@host> debug interface interface-name B. user@host> monitor usage interface-name C. user@host> monitor interface interface-name D. user@host> traceoptions interface interface-name /Reference: QUESTION 60 The monitor traffic command closely resembles which UNIX-based utility?

20 A. ps -x B. passwd C. ls -a-l D. tcpdump Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 61 Which type of traffic will cause Policed Discards errors on an interface on a JUNOS device? A. Traffic that does not match any route in the forwarding table. B. Traffic that exceeds the bandwidth of the interface. C. Traffic of unsupported protocols on that interface. D. Traffic arriving on unknown virtual-circuits on that interface. /Reference: QUESTION 62 If a SONET/SDH interface transmit link fails between two JUNOS devices, which two alarms or defects would be seen on those devices? (Choose two.) A. LOS B. REI C. BIP-B3 D. RDI Correct Answer: AD /Reference: QUESTION 63 To troubleshoot interface problems, you can use both the disable command and the deactivate command. Which two statements are correct? A. If the interface is disabled, the logical unit will administratively shutdown. B. If the interface is deactivated, the physical interface will administratively shutdown. C. If the interface is deactivated, the interface configuration is ignored during commit. D. If the interface is disabled, the logical unit configuration is ignored during commit. C

21 /Reference: QUESTION 64 In Ethernet networks, duplex mismatches will lower performance. Which error statistics can be seen if a duplex mismatch is present? A. collisions on the full-duplex side; runts on the half-duplex side B. collisions on the full-duplex side; collisions on the half-duplex side C. collisions on the half-duplex side; framing errors on the full-duplex side D. collisions on the half-duplex side; giants on the full-duplex side /Reference: QUESTION 65 When using the monitor traffic command to view traffic arriving on an interface, which command would save the data collected to a file on the router? A. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 save <file> B. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 write <file> C. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 write-file <file> D. monitor traffic interface fe-0/0/0.0 collect <file> /Reference: QUESTION 66 Which command would you type to see a concise display of which interfaces are up and which are down? A. show interfaces brief B. show interfaces status C. show ip interface brief D. show interfaces terse Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 67 When troubleshooting ATM, which command would allow you to test reachability from one side of an ATM cloud to the other?

22 A. ping atm vci interface at-0/1/0 end-to-end B. ping atm vci interface at-0/1/0 circuit C. ping atm vci interface at-0/1/0 far-end D. ping atm vci interface at-0/1/0 final-hop Correct Answer: A /Reference: ht t p:/ / w w w.gratisexam.com/ QUESTION 68 Which three SONET network elements are used for troubleshooting? (Choose three.) A. line B. path C. circuit D. section E. segment Correct Answer: ABD /Reference: QUESTION 69 What is used to view status messages sent to a file named "test" as they are sent? A. monitor start test B. show log test C. view log test D. show test realtime Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 70 Which command is used to retrieve the serial numbers of a Juniper device? A. show version B. show chassis hardware

23 C. show hardware detail D. view hardware database /Reference: QUESTION 71 Which command is used to show active alarms on a Juniper device? A. file list alarm B. show chassis alarms C. show chassis state D. show hardware alarms /Reference: QUESTION 72 Which operational command allows a user to view the exhaust temperatures of a Juniper device? A. show chassis state B. file list alarm C. show chassis alarms D. show chassis environment Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 73 Which command will show which message is displayed on a Juniper Router's LCD status screen? A. show chassis lcd B. show chassis fpd C. show chassis craft-interface D. show chassis status-window /Reference:

24 QUESTION 74 Which command would allow you to login to FPC 1 to collect FPC specific logs? A. start shell fpc1 B. start shell tnp1 C. start shell tnp address 1 D. start shell pfe network fpc1 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 75 Which command will display the temperature of the Routing Engine's CPU? A. show chassis environment B. show chassis routing-engine C. show chassis temperatures D. show chassis status /Reference: QUESTION 76 Which command allows you to decode packets in JUNOS? A. debug packet interface-name B. show interface extensive C. traceoptions interface-name D. monitor traffic interface interface-name Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 77 The monitor traffic command provides access to which utility? A. tcpdump B. telnet C. traceroute D. netstat Correct Answer: A

25 /Reference: QUESTION 78 Which two statements regarding traceroute on JUNOS devices are correct? (Choose two.) A. Traceroute transmits ICMP echo-request packets. B. Traceroute transmits UDP packets. C. Traceroute receives ICMP echo-reply packets. D. Traceroute receives ICMP port-unreachable packets. D /Reference: QUESTION 79 If you want to test if fragmentation is causing problems on the network, which two ping command options are useful? (Choose two.) A. ttl B. size C. rapid D. do-not-fragment D /Reference: QUESTION 80 Which command would initiate a loopback on a Gigabit Ethernet interface ge-0/0/0? A. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 unit 0 loopback B. # set interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options loopback C. > set interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback D. > loopback ge-0/0/0 /Reference: QUESTION 81 When a local loopback is activated on a PPP serial link, what indicates that the local interface is good? A. A ping to the local address succeeds.

26 B. A ping to the remote address succeeds. C. A ping to the remote address received a 'TTL expired' message. D. The interface shows a flag indicating that a loop is detected. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 82 Which two loopback types are supported for serial interfaces on Juniper devices? (Choose two.) A. Local B. Far End C. Remote D. Bidirectional Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 83 How is a loopback cleared on interface ge-0/0/0? A. Issue the operational command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback local. B. No command is necessary, the loopback times-out in 5 minutes. C. Issue the configuration command clear interfaces ge-0/0/0 loopback, then commit. D. Issue the configuration command delete interfaces ge-0/0/0 gigether-options loopback, then commit. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 84 Which CLI command is used to upgrade a Juniper router? A. load package B. load override terminal C. request system software add D. request system software upgrade /Reference:

27 QUESTION 85 When performing password recovery, which command should be entered at the boot prompt? A. boot -s B. boot -r C. boot single D. boot recovery Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 86 What are three correct steps to reset a lost root password? (Choose three.) A. Press the TAB key when prompted. B. Enter boot -p. C. Enter recovery when prompted. D. Commit the change. E. Reboot. DE /Reference: QUESTION 87 In which routing table would you find an OSPF V2 route? A. ipv4-unicast B. inet.0 C. inet.4 D. inet.ipv4 /Reference: QUESTION 88 By default, which routing table is used to store unicast IPv4 routes? A. inet.0 B. inet.1 C. inet.2 D. inet.3

28 Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 89 Which two statements are correct about routing tables in JUNOS? (Choose two.) A. There are separate tables for IPv4 and IPv6 called inet.0 and inet6.0 respectively. B. They only contain the best possible route to each destination. C. All running protocols can populate the routing tables at the same time. D. Routes with the highest preference value are placed as active routes in the routing table. Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 90 Which type of routes are held in Inet.0? A. multicast and unicast IPv4 routes B. ARP tables and MAC reachability C. IP version 4 unicast routes D. IP version 6 and IP version 4 routes /Reference: QUESTION 91 Which two statements are correct regarding default protocol preference values? (Choose two.) A. OSPF has a single preference value for both internal and external routes. B. RIP is preferred over OSPF external routes. C. Direct, local, and static routes have the same preference value. D. OSPF's preference value is lower than BGP (both IBGP and EBGP). D /Reference: QUESTION 92 What is the role of route preference? A. It is used to determine which route should become active.

29 B. It is used to select which routing table to use for forwarding. C. It is used to determine what routes to accept into the routing table. D. It is used to select the best route between multiple equal cost paths. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 93 What is the default protocol preference for OSPF external routes? A. 10 B. 15 C. 150 D. 160 /Reference: QUESTION 94 What is the default protocol preference for BGP EBGP routes? A. 10 B. 100 C. 170 D. 175 /Reference: QUESTION 95 When you display the routing table by entering the show route command, what does the * indicate? A. The route is a direct route. B. The route was selected as active. C. The route is a default route. D. The route was learned using a dynamic routing protocol. /Reference:

30 QUESTION 96 Which command allows viewing of only OSPF routes? A. show ip ospf route B. show ip route protocol ospf C. show route protocol ospf D. show ospf table /Reference: QUESTION 97 Which two statements are true of the forwarding table? (Choose two.) A. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane only. B. The forwarding table contains both active and inactive routes. C. The forwarding table is stored in the control plane and the forwarding plane. D. The forwarding table uses a longest match lookup for forwarding decisions. D /Reference: QUESTION 98 Which statement is true about a forwarding table? A. It stores a subset of information from the routing table. B. It contains routes learned from all protocols to a destination. C. It provides a database for routes selected and placed into the routing table. D. Every routing protocol maintains its own forwarding table. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 99 Which statement accurately defines the role of a Qualified Next Hop? A. It is any alternative path for best effort traffic. B. It is the next hop of the active route to a directly attached device. C. It is the next hop for a route from a qualified protocol. D. It is an alternative next hop for a static route.

31 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 100 What is correct regarding the configuration shown below? static route /0 qualified-next-hop preference 7 next-hop A. The next-hop is selected because the address has the lowest value. B. The next-hop is selected because it is listed first. C. The next-hop is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference. D. The next-hop is selected because it is the lowest protocol preference. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 101 What are three advantages of dynamic routing protocols over static routing protocols?(choose three.) A. lower administrative overhead B. increased network availability C. greater network scalability D. easier to implement qualified next hops E. easier ECMP route implement Correct Answer: ABC /Reference: QUESTION 102 Which statement is correct about a Routing Policy term? A. A term must contain a "from" statement. B. A term acts like "if" and "then" statements. C. The most specific term has precedence. D. Terms can be written in any order to achieve the same behavior. /Reference: QUESTION 103

32 A routing policy has three terms and the first term of the policy does not contain a terminating action. What will become of the routes after they have been evaluated by the first term? A. In the absence of a terminating action, all routes are accepted. B. The route will be evaluated by the second term in the policy. C. The default action will be applied. D. In the absence of a termination action, all routes are rejected. /Reference: QUESTION 104 Which statement is true about import and export routing policies? A. Import policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table. B. Export policies concern routes received and determine which routes get put into the routing table. C. Export policies are applied before the routing table. D. Import polices are applied after the routing table. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 105 Your routing table contains four static routes which you need to redistribute to your OSPF peers. Which method would accomplish this? A. Apply an import policy to OSPF; this will import the static routes into OSPF. B. Apply an export policy to protocol "static"; this will export the routes to other protocols. C. Apply an import policy to the forwarding table; this will import the routes, allowing them to be forwarded to OSPF neighbors. D. Apply an export policy to OSPF; this will export the static routes to your OSPF neighbors. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 106 Which three are considered match criteria in a policy? (Choose three.) A. prefix-list B. protocol ospf C. next-term D. AS path E. prefix-term

33 Correct Answer: ABD /Reference: QUESTION 107 What is a vaild match criteria for a firewall filter? A. from protocol tcp B. from url C. from community D. from acl Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 108 Which two policy actions are considered flow control actions? (Choose two.) A. reject B. community add C. next term D. next policy D /Reference: QUESTION 109 What is a vaild action for a firewall filter? A. then drop B. then count C. then allow D. then community add /Reference: QUESTION 110 What happens when a route does not match any user configured policies?

34 A. The route is rejected. B. The route is accepted. C. The route is given a lower priority. D. The route is sent to the default policy. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 111 Click the Exhibit button. term 1 { from protocol ospf; then { preference 110; accept; term 2 { from protocol static; then accept; term 3 { from { protocol static; route-filter /16 orlonger; then reject; term 4 { from { protocol static; route-filter /24 exact; then next policy; Given the policy shown in the exhibit, what will happen to Static route /24? A. accept B. reject C. next-policy D. go to default policy Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 112 Which two commands are needed to create and apply an export policy that advertises static routes to OSPF neighbors? (Choose two.)

35 A. edit policy-options policy-statement policy-name set term 1 from protocol static set term 1 then accept B. edit ospf policy set from protocol static set 1 then accept C. set protocols OSPF export policy-name D. set protocols OSPF policy policy-name Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 113 You are configuring a firewall filter. Which "from" criterion would match only those packets destined for ? A. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from address B. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from destination-address C. [edit firewall filter test] root@router# set term 1 from destination D. [edit firewall filter test] /Reference: QUESTION 114 How do you send static routes to a RIP neighbor? A. By default, RIP automatically sends static routes. B. Configure the static route with a next hop of the RIP neighbor. C. Configure redistribute static under [edit protocols rip]. D. Apply an export policy within RIP that matches on the routes, and accepts it. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 115 Which two statements describe the default routing policy for BGP? (Choose two.) A. Advertise only locally originated routes. B. Accept all BGP routes and import into inet.0. C. Advertise all active BGP routes. D. Advertise only EBGP routes.

36 C /Reference: QUESTION 116 Click the Exhibit button. term 1 { from { source-address { /0; destination-address { /16; then { log; reject; term 2 { from { destination-address { /24; then accept; term 3 { from { source-address { /16; destination-address { /16; /32 except; Given the firewall filter shown the exhibit, a packet has a source IP address of and a destination address of How can the packet be changed to discard and count it? A. rename term 4 to term 1

37 B. rename term 1 to term 5 C. insert term 4 before term 1 D. insert term 4 before term 3 /Reference: QUESTION 117 What is the last CoS process performed prior to a packet leaving a router? A. Rewrite Marker B. Multifield Classifier C. Policing D. BA Classifier Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 118 When is the BA Classifier engaged for identifying the forwarding class of traffic in a Juniper router? A. after a packet is identified by a multifield classifier B. after the traffic passes though a shaper C. prior to ingress policing of traffic D. while the packet is stored in the switching fabric of the router /Reference: QUESTION 119 Which two options are reasons for using traffic classification? (Choose two.) A. to use the classification to route traffic B. to use the classification to reorder packets from various sources C. to use the classification to discard malformed packets D. to use the classification to provide the configured service level Correct Answer: AD /Reference:

38 QUESTION 120 What is the purpose of classification, rewrites, and queuing in Juniper routers? A. to provide policy based routing B. to provide class of service capabilities C. to provide firewall filtering capabilities D. to provide unified threat managment /Reference: QUESTION 121 What are three components of a scheduler? (Choose three.) A. Forwarding Class B. Priority C. TOS Marking D. Buffer Size E. RED Configuration DE /Reference: QUESTION 122 When configuring a scheduler map, which two are referenced? (Choose two.) A. Forwarding Class B. Scheduler C. Rewrite Rules D. Priority Correct Answer: AB /Reference: QUESTION 123 What represents the decimal equivalence of ? A B C D

39 /Reference: QUESTION 124 Which two statements are true regarding an Ethernet collision domain? (Choose two.) A. The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a switch is used. B. The likelihood of collisions occurring increases when a hub is used. C. If a hub is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the hub. D. If a switch is used, the collision domain is limited to each device and the switch. D /Reference: QUESTION 125 Which three of the following options are NOT fields found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose three.) A. Version B. Type C. Source Port D. Flags E. Data Correct Answer: ACD /Reference: QUESTION 126 Which two fields are found in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two.) A. Version B. TTL C. Checksum D. Flags E. Data E /Reference: QUESTION 127

40 Which two statements about subnet masks are true? (Choose two.) A. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion. B. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the host portion. C. If a bit is turned on (1), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix. D. If a bit is turned off (0), the corresponding bit in the IP address is used for the network prefix. C /Reference: QUESTION 128 Which two protocols are connection-oriented? (Choose two.) A. Ethernet B. PPP C. TCP D. UDP C /Reference: QUESTION 129 Which three steps are part of the PPP CHAP 3-way handshake? (Choose three.) A. The caller sends a challenge to the authenticator. B. The authenticator sends a challenge to the caller. C. The caller encrypts the challenge using a secret. D. The caller sends a success message to the authenticator. E. The authenticator encrypts the challenge using a secret. CE /Reference: QUESTION 130 You have been asked to use a 30 bit subnet mask to segment the following network block: How many useable subnetworks and usable hosts could be created? A. 32 networks with 8 hosts B. 62 networks with 2 hosts C. 30 networks with 16 hosts D. 32 networks with 14 hosts

41 /Reference: ht t p:/ / w w w.gratisexam.com/