EXAMINATION 2001R400_Test 01_C200/C200E Controller Architecture

Transcription

1 2001R400_Test 01_C200/C200E Controller Architecture 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. C 200 processors can be redundant B. C 200 Fieldbus interface modules can be redundant C. C 200 PM IO link module can be redundant D. C 200 Chassis I/O can be redundant E. C 200 PM I/O can be redundant 2 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is incorrect? A. Supervisory ControlNet can be redundant B. Supervisory ControlNet cannot be used to connect the C 200 to the Experion PKS Server C. An Experion server must have a PCIC card to communicate with C200s over ControlNet D. Supervisory ControlNet can be used to connect C 200, Application Control Environment and Allen Bradley Controllers 3 Points: 1.00 Which of the following cannot be an integral part of a C200 Control Strategy? A. Series A I/O B. PM I/O C. Rail I/O D. Fieldbus valves E. PLC I/O using OPC communications EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 4 04 April 2012

2 2001R400_Test 01_C200/C200E Controller Architecture 4 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements about Control Builder is incorrect? A. Can be used to configure control strategies in Programmable Logic Controllers B. Can be used to configure control strategies for the Application Control Environment C. Can be used to configure control strategies for the C200 D. Can be used to configure control strategies in Fieldbus devices E. Can be used to monitor run time values in a control strategy 5 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is true? A. The Application Control Environment can be redundant B. A C200 with a 5ms execution time can be redundant C. A Simulation Control Environment can be redundant D. B and C above E. All the above F. None of the above 6 Points: 1.00 Redundant controllers A. can not contain a redundancy module B. must have remote I/O C. are not available for the C200 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 4 04 April 2012

3 2001R400_Test 01_C200/C200E Controller Architecture 7 Points: 1.00 How many IO Modules Control Porcessor Supports A. 80 B. 24 C. 64 D Points: 1.00 What is User Memory size of C200E Controller A. 8 MB B. 32 MB C. 4 MB D. 16 MB EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 3 of 4 04 April 2012

4 2001R400_Test 01_C200/C200E Controller Architecture EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 4 of 4 04 April 2012

5 2001R400_Test 02_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 1 of 2 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is not applicable to Series C system? A. Designed Vertical B. No electronic card files C. Zero Foot print power system D. IO processors and Field terminations are present in same assembly E. None of the above 2 Points: 1.00 Which of the following is not true for Series C system? A. C300 controller is connected to the Control firewall using FTE B. Control firewalls are connected to Level 1 or Level 2 switches C. Allen Bradley PLC can be directly connected to the C300 controller D. Only 4 types of Series A I/O are supported by C300 controller 3 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following Series C I/O modules doesn t support redundancy? A. Analog Input B. Low level Analog Input C. Analog Output D. Digital input 4 Points: 1.00 How many IO units are supported per IO link? A. 64 B. 40 C. 36 D. 18 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 4 04 April 2012

6 2001R400_Test 02_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 1 of 2 5 Points: 1.00 What is the maximum number of FTEBs that can be connected per redundant C300 controller? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6 D. 8 6 Points: 1.00 What is the maximum number of IOU supported per C300? A. 64 B. 40 C. 36 D Points: 1.00 Which one of the following I/O configurations is valid for C300? A. Link1 40 Series C IOM, Link2-40 PM-IOP and 8 Series A I/O units with FTEB B. Link1 24 Series C IOM, Link2-30 PM-IOP and 8 Series A I/O units with FTEB C. Link1 40 Series C IOM, Link2-24 PM-IOP and 16 Series A I/O units with FTEB D. Link1 40 Series C IOM, Link2-24 PM-IOP and 8 Series A I/O units with FTEB 8 Points: 1.00 How many Salves can be supported by each PGM Link A. 100 B. 252 C. 2 D. 126 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 4 04 April 2012

7 2001R400_Test 02_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 1 of 2 9 Points: 1.00 How many Profibus Gateway Modules can be supported by C300 Controller A. 5 B. 3 C. 4 D. 2 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 3 of 4 04 April 2012

8 2001R400_Test 02_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 1 of 2 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 4 of 4 04 April 2012

9 2001R400_Test 03_Control Builder Introduction 1 Points: 1.00 A load from Project tab in control builder loads the Control strategy information into A. Monitoring tab B. Control Processor C. RTDB of server D. Checkpoint file E. All the above 2 Points: 1.00 The project tab of the Control Builder is directly linked to A. EMDB B. ERDB C. RTDB D. All the above 3 Points: 1.00 In Control Builder, to add a Control Module or make structural changes to an existing CM, you must use the A. Monitoring tab. B. Library tab. C. Project tab. D. Import/Export function. 4 Points: 1.00 In Control Builder, to view Control Modules online or change parameters online, you must use: A. Compare Parameters B. The Project tab C. The Library Assignment View D. The Monitoring tab EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

10 2001R400_Test 03_Control Builder Introduction 5 Points: 1.00 Search Toolbar is used for A. Sorting of Control Modules B. All of Above C. Filtering of Library blocks D. Searching of Tags EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

11 2001R400_Test 04_C200/C200E Hardware Configuration Concepts 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following is not a valid FTEB node number? A. 11 B. 99 C. 150 D. 1 2 Points: 1.00 While configuring a ControlNet-connected Control Processor Module (CPM) in Control Builder, what MAC address is entered as the Supervisory MAC address? A. MAC address of the PCIC card B. Device Index of FTEB card C. MAC address of CNI card connected to the server D. MAC address of CNI card connected to IO rack 3 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements best describes the use of Import/Export function? A. Only hardware configuration can be moved between servers B. CM's, SCM's and hardware configuration can be copied and restored to another server C. Only CM's can be moved between servers D. It is a reporting tool that lists how many CM's are configured in Control Builder project EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

12 2001R400_Test 04_C200/C200E Hardware Configuration Concepts EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

13 2001R400_Test 05_C300 Hardware Configuration Concepts 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is false? A. Two IOLinks are automatically created during C300 configuration B. IO Family type needs to be configured for each Series C IOLink C. Post Load State of an IOM module can not be configured while loading D. Series C IO Channel can be added via the Library or the Project tree in Control Builder EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

14 2001R400_Test 05_C300 Hardware Configuration Concepts EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

15 2001R400_Test 06_Controller Hardware Configuration 1 Points: 1.00 The C200 controller communicates with remote I/O racks through which of the following? A. Ethernet B. CNet using additional CNIs dedicated to remote I/O communication. C. CNet using a KTRC(X) card D. CNet using the supervisory CNI module 2 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements regarding the Control Processor (CPM) is not true. The CPM: A. can support up to 8 I/O Chassis and 64 IOMs. B. is a double-wide module that occupies 2 slots in the rack. C. can be redundant. D. provides an interface to the Supervisory Network. 3 Points: 1.00 The C200 is configured using which application? A. Control Builder B. Quick Builder C. Knowledge Builder D. Network Tools 4 Points: 1.00 The CEE is a Control Execution Environment that A. Provides an interface between the Experion PKS Server and the C200 controller B. supports the execution of function blocks for solving control applications C. Is used to store templates for point building D. Keeps track of CNI and MAC addresses and provides uplink support EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 4 04 April 2012

16 2001R400_Test 06_Controller Hardware Configuration 5 Points: 1.00 Before downloading an I/O Channel, it must first be A. Activated B. Validated C. Assigned D. Renamed 6 Points: 1.00 In the following diagram, what are the three numbers required to configure the slot location of the designated IOM? A. IOM Slot Number 05 Uplink CNI MAC Address 06 Downlink CNI Slot Number 01 B. IOM Slot Number 06 Uplink CNI MAC Address 06 Downlink CNI Slot Number 03 C. IOM Slot Number 06 Uplink CNI MAC Address 05 Downlink CNI Slot Number 03 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 4 04 April 2012

17 2001R400_Test 06_Controller Hardware Configuration EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 3 of 4 04 April 2012

18 2001R400_Test 06_Controller Hardware Configuration EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 4 of 4 04 April 2012

19 2001R400_Test 07_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 2 of 2 1 Points: 1.00 The maximum distance of any single Fiber-optic segment must be less than A. 2 KM B. 1.5 KM C. 4 KM D. 8 KM 2 Points: 1.00 The total maximum IOlink length for PMIO is A. 1.5 KM B. 2 KM C. 4 KM D. 8 KM 3 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following statements is not applicable for Control Firewall? A. C300 and Series C FIM must be connected to the Control Firewall B. Fiber optic and CAT 5 cables can be used for connecting Control Firewall to L1 or L2 switch C. Control firewall can be cascaded D. FTEB for some Series A I/O can be connected to Control Firewall EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

20 2001R400_Test 07_C300 Controller Architecture - Part 2 of 2 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

21 2001R400_Test 08_Template and Performance Calculation 1 Points: 1.00 The amount of I/O Link bandwidth available for I/O scanning per second is divided into 1000 units called A. Memory Units B. Process Units C. Link Units D. Execution Units 2 Points: 1.00 Which tab contains the information about the used and free memory blocks? A. Memory B. Block Type Info C. Main D. CPUOverruns 3 Points: 1.00 Which tab contains the information about the configuration of the Base Execution Period of the CEE? A. Memory B. Block Types Info C. Main D. Cycleoverrun 4 Points: 1.00 Which are options of Batch Event Summary A. Small B. Large C. Medium D. All of Above E. None EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

22 2001R400_Test 08_Template and Performance Calculation EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

23 2001R400_Test 09_Data Acquisition Control Module 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following options correctly defines Execution cycle? A. Execution phase defined for a CM B. Execution period and Execution phase defined for a CM C. Execution order defined for a CM D. Execution period defined for a CM 2 Points: 1.00 Execution order in CM defines: A. Execution cycle of Control Module in CEE B. Execution phase of function block in CEE C. All function blocks with same Execution order in multiple Control Modules are executed in parallel D. Sequential execution order of function blocks within a Control Module 3 Points: 1.00 What type of interlock cannot be bypassed for a Device Control CM? A. Process overrides B. Safety Interlock C. Process permissives D. Process interlocks 4 Points: 1.00 To connect two function blocks together, A. configure one function block's input to another function block's output. B. select the "wire" icon and click the parameters you want connected. C. assign both function blocks to the same channel. D. drag and drop each function block until their connection arrows are in contact. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

24 2001R400_Test 09_Data Acquisition Control Module 5 Points: 1.00 A Control strategy is made up of A. Control Modules. B. Function Blocks. C. Wire/Pin Connections. D. All of the above. 6 Points: 1.00 When a new CM is added, Control Builder A. automatically assigns it to the C200 in Project by default. B. highlights the appropriate function blocks in the Library tab for the type of Control Module being built. C. automatically gives the CM a unique, sequential name. D. disables the "assign" functionality until the CM has been downloaded. 7 Points: 1.00 When creating the Control Module 11_TI20, the DATAACQA block was used to: A. Acquire the PVRAW value from the field. B. Define PV alarm limits. C. Store the history configuration parameters. D. As a convenient place to inactivate the CM EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

25 2001R400_Test 10_Productivity Tools in Control Builder 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is true about Short Names? A. Optional setting B. Applies to parameter connector and parameter references C. Applies to expression used in SCM and all Calc blocks D. Reference to a container parameter is displayed as "$.parameter" in expression present in a Step of a SCM E. All of the above 2 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following statements is not true for the Import/Export function? A. During the Export function, a file is created by the system called Export.sl that contains a list of what is exported. B. During the Export process, the Control Modules selected are removed from their original project and moved to a new location. C. You can import all or part of a Project. D. Control Modules are always unassigned when imported and must be assigned after import. E. A and C F. B and D 3 Points: 1.00 The Bulk Edit Parameters tool is used to: A. As an on-line tool to activate/inactivate multiple CM's at once. B. Copy the Control Module to the Monitoring tab. C. Export selected CM's D. Change selected parameters on selected CM's EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

26 2001R400_Test 10_Productivity Tools in Control Builder EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

27 2001R400_Test 11_Other Tools for C200 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following functions are available only in a redundant server scenario? A. Initialize Database B. Recover Primary database, Recover Secondary database, Enable Replication and Disable Replication C. Expand Database D. Backup Database, Restore Database 2 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is not true for ERDB database? A. ERDB database file can be opened in Microsoft Access to reference and modify control strategy. B. ERDB database files reside in C:\Program Files\Honeywell\Experion PKS\Engineering Tools\System\ER C. ERDB contains logic CM's/SCM's from C200 controllers D. ERDB is a SQL database E. ERDB is accessed using Control Builder and DbAdmin 3 Points: 1.00 The DBADMIN tool is: A. A utility for maintaining the ERDB or the EMDB database B. Used for organizing Excel spreadsheets C. A tool used by operators as a search engine D. Used to modify tuning parameters on PID control loops EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

28 2001R400_Test 11_Other Tools for C200 4 Points: 1.00 The DBADMIN Filter tool is used: A. By operations for sorting SP values B. To avoid interfering with other users of Control Builder C. To transfer selected points to another server. D. To give operators a sorted view of the area database. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

29 2001R400_Test 12_Checkpoints 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is true about checkpoint in Experion? A. C300 checkpoints are stored to a single file B. PM and Series C IOM can be restored individually when connected to a C300 C. C200 checkpoints will restore the C200 and all IOM s D. Series A connected to the C300 cannot be restored individually E. All of the above EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

30 2001R400_Test 12_Checkpoints EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

31 2001R400_Test 13_PID Control Module 1 Points: 1.00 When does the Initialization request occur? A. When MODE changes from Auto/Manual to Cascade B. When MODE changes from Cascade to Auto/Manual C. When MODE changes from Cascade to Auto D. When MODE changes from Cascade to Manual 2 Points: 1.00 PV tracking option sets A. SP equal to PV B. SP equal to OP C. PV equal to SP D. OP equal to SP 3 Points: 1.00 In Control Builder, function block names must be unique within: A. the Root. B. the Project. C. the Control Module. D. the Controller. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 4 04 April 2012

32 2001R400_Test 13_PID Control Module There are three segments in 11_FC01.PIDA.PV. 4 Points: 1.00 What is 11_FC01? A. The Control Module Name B. The Function Block Name C. The Parameter Name 5 Points: 1.00 What is PIDA? A. The Control Module Name B. The Function Block Name C. The Parameter Name 6 Points: 1.00 What is PV? A. The Control Module Name B. The Function Block Name C. The Parameter Name -----End of Scenario Points: 1.00 Which of the following are ways to load Control Modules? A. Select the corresponding CPM in the Project tab, then select Controller > Load B. Select the CM or IOM in the Project tab and select the down arrow C. Select the CM or IOM in the Monitoring tab and select the down arrow D. Right-click CPM in the Project tab and select Load E. All of the above. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 4 04 April 2012

33 2001R400_Test 13_PID Control Module 8 Points: 1.00 Which of the following are ways to activate CMs and IOMs? A. Press CTl+ALT+Del keys at the same time B. Select the corresponding CEE in the Monitoring tab, then select Controller > Activate > Selected CEE(s), IOMs, CMs. C. Select the CM or IOM in the Project tab, right-click, and select Activate D. Select the CM or IOM in the Monitoring tab, right-click and select Activate E. A and C F. B and D 9 Points: 1.00 Control Modules can have an execution period from 50 msec to 2 sec, or from 5 msec to 200 msec. The execution period is determined by: A. How many function blocks are contained in the CM B. How many CMs are built in Project C. How many C200 controllers are on the network D. How the CEE was configured 10 Points: 1.00 When a Control Module is copied, which item(s) are not copied to the new CM? A. Function block names B. Parameter connections C. I/O Channel configuration D. PV Alarm limits EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 3 of 4 04 April 2012

34 2001R400_Test 13_PID Control Module EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 4 of 4 04 April 2012

35 2001R400_Test 14_Output Reversal and Red Tag Indication 1 Points: 1.00 Which option is selected for Output Indication parameter of the PID block when the Output range is 0 to 100 % and the Closed and Open indications are shown at the 0 and 100 percent points on the OP bar graph of the faceplate display? A. Direct B. Reverse C. DirectDispInd D. ReverseDispInd EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

36 2001R400_Test 14_Output Reversal and Red Tag Indication EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

37 2001R400_Test 15_Device Control Module 1 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following statements is true? A. Templates of Control Module are created in Quick Builder B. Templates are used to build multiple copies of Control Strategies C. Changes made in the parent template will not propagate to the children D. All the above 2 Points: 1.00 When are templates best used? A. Best used for CM's containing one Function Block B. Only for complex graphics C. Where a complex control strategy is used in multiple CM's D. As a tool to prioritize alarm sequence 3 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following statements about Device Control CMs is true? A. Maximum of 3 outputs B. Maximum of 4 inputs C. Can be interlocked to prevent operation under configurable process situations D. Provides a user interface to the digital I/O used to control a device such as a pump, motor, or solenoid valve E. All of the above F. None of the above EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

38 2001R400_Test 15_Device Control Module 4 Points: 1.00 Which of the following is not true? A. Safety Interlock has the highest priority and cannot be bypassed. B. If Bypass is set ON and then set OFF, any interlocks that were previously in affect are now turned off. C. Process Permissive Interlock has the lowest priority. D. OP cannot be commanded to a different state if an Override Interlock is active. E. A Process Override can be bypassed while a Safety Interlock cannot. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

39 2001R400_Test 16_MATH Function Blocks 1 Points: 1.00 Which one of the following statements is true for MATH blocks? A. It occupies less memory compared to the AUXCALC block used earlier B. It doesn't have any expressions C. It follows the EXECSTATE and PERIOD of the Control Module that contains it D. It is used to perform simple mathematical calculations E. All of the above. 2 Points: 1.00 Rolling Average function Block can be loaded into C200 Control Execution Environment (True/False) 3 Points: 1.00 What ROLLBUF Option defines A. Unit of Time B. Period for which samples must be collect C. Frequency 4 Points: 1.00 How many constants can be set in AUXCALC function block A. 5 B. 1 C. 2 D. 8 EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

40 2001R400_Test 16_MATH Function Blocks EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

41 2001R400_Test 17_Database Search 1 Points: 1.00 Where Used search for a process point displays the A. Usage of Process points in ERDB B. References in the Display files C. References in Alarm Groups D. All the above 2 Points: 1.00 Parameter Search searches in for the usage of parameters with specified criteria? A. EMDB B. ERDB C. Display Files D. EMDB and ERDB EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

42 2001R400_Test 17_Database Search EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

43 2001R400_Test 18_Sequential Control Module - Concepts and Use 1 Points: 1.00 Every SCM begins with A. An invoke transition B. An END statement C. A project identification number D. With the word "begin" 2 Points: 1.00 Transitions and Steps A. Can not be used in an SCM B. Generally alternate in an SCM, Step to Step connection can be used where more than 16 Step outputs are required C. Are identical to PID function blocks D. Are built using Quick Builder 3 Points: 1.00 How many number of branches can be added to a step? A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D Points: 1.00 Which is the recommended practice for Looping? A. Loop from a parallel section to non parallel section B. Loop from Step/Phase back to always true transition C. Loop back to the default invoke transition D. End with a Transition then loop back into a Step/Phase EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

44 2001R400_Test 18_Sequential Control Module - Concepts and Use 5 Points: 1.00 Normal Handlers include A. Main, Check and Interrupt Handlers B. Main, Restart and Interrupt Handlers C. Main, Restart and Hold Handlers D. Main, Hold and Interrupt Handlers 6 Points: 1.00 How many Recipe values can be stored in an SCM? A. 20 B. 30 C. 50 D Points: 1.00 If the Transition block in Blue color then it is A. Under execution B. Successfully executed C. Execution failed D. Execution pending EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

45 2001R400_Test 19_Sequential Control Module - Basic 1 Points: 1.00 What are the Function block types used in configuring SCMs? A. STEP, HANDLER, SYNC and TRANSITION B. FLAGS, DACA, and AUXCALC C. NUMERICS, REGCTL, and DEVCTL D. LOGIC, SWITCHA, and ONDELAY 2 Points: 1.00 What is the maximum number of outputs a STEP can have? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D Points: 1.00 What is the maximum number of conditions a Transition can have? A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is not true? A. Each Transition has three primary logic gates and one secondary logic gate B. An SCM waits at a Transition until the logic in the Transition becomes true C. When operating a Sequential Control Module, you must issue a START command to go from COMPLETE to IDLE D. The first Transition must be an Invoke Transition EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

46 2001R400_Test 19_Sequential Control Module - Basic 5 Points: 1.00 Which of the following statements is true? A. Every SCM begins with an Invoke Transition B. SCMs can have multiple endings C. Steps and Transitions generally alternate in an SCM D. Up to 10 branches can be configured per Step E. All of the above F. None of the above 6 Points: 1.00 To permit an SCM to manipulate a Control Module, what parameter must first be set? A. Mode B. Mode Attribute C. Command D. Permissives EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

47 2001R400_Test 20_Sequential Control Module - Advanced 1 Points: 1.00 Which of the following is not an exception handler? A. Abort B. Hold C. Stop D. Main EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

48 2001R400_Test 20_Sequential Control Module - Advanced EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

49 2001R400_Test 21_Interactive Instructions 1 Points: 1.00 Table View A. Requires a video camera. B. Is another way to view and operate SCM's C. Is how operators signon to Experion D. Is an SCM as viewed in a spreadsheet 2 Points: 1.00 An Expression A. Cannot be used with a confirmable message. B. Is not permitted to be used in a step output C. Cannot be used to command a SP change D. Must ask a question. EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

50 2001R400_Test 21_Interactive Instructions EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012

51 2001R400_Test 22_Appendix 1 Points: 1.00 Which new function block provides four inputs, all of which have initialization option? A. Signal Selector B. Incremental Summer C. Regulatory Summer 2 Points: 1.00 Power function blocks are: A. Are available in a single library B. Can be used in both C200 and C300 C. Aimed at addressing process strategy requirements specific to Power Generation D. Fifteen control strategies are identified and added EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 1 of 2 04 April 2012

52 2001R400_Test 22_Appendix EPKS 18/24/2001/2002/7019 R400 Page: 2 of 2 04 April 2012