PrepKing. PrepKing

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1 PrepKing Number: Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: PrepKing

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 Which statement best describes the data center core layer? A. connects to the campus aggregation layer B. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric C. is typically merged with the campus core layer D. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 2 Which type of network in an HPC environment most requires low latency? A. MPI B. access C. private D. storage /Reference: QUESTION 3 Which type of HPC application requires low latency? A. financial analytics B. finite element analysis C. digital image rendering D. seismic and geophysical modeling /Reference: QUESTION 4 A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which access layer option would you recommend? A. blade server Ethernet switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch B. blade server InfiniBand switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch C. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 4948 top-of-rack switch D. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series end-of-rack switch

3 /Reference: QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. Where is Layer 2 adjacency required? A. server-to-server only B. access-to-server only C. aggregation-to-access only D. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server /Reference: QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit. What is a feature of this spanning-tree topology?

4 A. VLANs are not restricted to access-switch pairs. B. Only one aggregation-to-access uplink is active at a given time. C. If the link between access-switch pairs is broken, the return IP path may be broken. D. Uplink failures on access layer switches will not break connectivity between servers and service modules in the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 7 How is FCIP traffic marked with DSCP values? A. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel. B. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel. C. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel. D. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel. /Reference: QUESTION 8 Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer?

5 A. port scans B. IP spoofing C. DDoS attacks D. MAC address spoofing /Reference: QUESTION 9 Which statement is correct about the Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch? A. is nonblocking B. performs only Layer 2 switching C. has up to 48-Gbps wire-speed performance D. balances lower cost with lower-performance access layer switching /Reference: QUESTION 10 Which statement describes an IDSM module operating in inline rather than promiscuous mode? A. lower latency B. higher latency C. lower throughput D. higher throughput E. higher latency and lower throughput F. lower latency and higher throughput /Reference: QUESTION 11 Refer to the exhibit. What do you need to configure to prevent spanning-tree loops from occurring between the two FWSMs?

6 A. FWSMs in transparent mode B. ethertype ACLs to allow BPDUs C. FWSMs in multiple-context mode D. failover and state interfaces on the same VLAN /Reference: QUESTION 12 How many FWSM modules are needed to support 8 Gbps of throughput through an aggregation module? A. one B. two C. four D. eight /Reference: QUESTION 13 What advantage do 10-Gigabit Ethernet uplinks have over EtherChannels? A. more reliable B. higher bandwidth

7 C. faster convergence time D. better load balancing of traffic Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 14 According to Cisco best practice, which service module should be placed in service switches within the aggregation layer? A. NAM B. CSM C. IDSM D. FWSM /Reference: QUESTION 15 What is the total bandwidth available to a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series CEF720 line card? A. 16 Gbps B. 20 Gbps C. 32 Gbps D. 40 Gbps E. 48 Gbps Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 16 Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?

8 A. model A B. model B C. model C D. model D /Reference: QUESTION 17 Which three of the following service modules can be deployed in redundant pairs with active/active failover? (Choose three.) A. ACE B. CSM C. NAM D. IDSM E. FWSM F. SSLSM DE /Reference: QUESTION 18 What is the Cisco best-practice recommendation for the maximum number of HSRP instances per aggregation module? A. 3 B. 30 C. 300 D. no recommended maximum

9 /Reference: QUESTION 19 Which security technique would you use to protect servers from SYN-flooding DoS attacks? A. urpf B. TCP intercept C. TCP RPF check D. drop and shutdown thresholds /Reference: QUESTION 20 Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies? A. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger C. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller D. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller /Reference: QUESTION 21 When hosts are noncompliant with security policies, which Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch feature allows them to be isolated from the network? A. NAC B. private VLANs C. IP Source Guard D. unicast MAC filtering /Reference: QUESTION 22 Which Cisco Server Fabric Switch model provides up to 12 InfiniBand ports and up to 6 Ethernet ports?

10 A. SFS 3001 B. SFS 3012 C. SFS 7008P D. SFS 7012D /Reference: QUESTION 23 Refer to the exhibit. What is one of the features of this spanning-tree topology? A. Uplinks from both access switches are simultaneously active. B. Lower access-switch density is supported as compared to other topologies. C. Traffic must traverse the aggregation layer EtherChannel to load balance uplinks. D. Both VLANs can be extended to all access switches that are attached to the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 24 Why are server-to-server traffic flows routed through the aggregation layer? A. They are routed to provide increased fault-tolerance and smaller STP domains. B. They are routed to provide load-balancing services between web and application servers. C. They are routed because individual access modules cannot scale to large HPC deployments. D. Server-to-server traffic flows should never be routed through the aggregation layer.

11 /Reference: QUESTION 25 Which layer connects to the campus core in a large data center network? A. data center core B. data center access C. data center service D. data center aggregation /Reference: QUESTION 26 Refer to the exhibit. Which security technique would you use to tune DoS attack mitigation for each individual application? A. VACLs B. router ACLs C. control plane policing D. drop and shutdown thresholds Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 27 Which of the following statements describes the data center core? A. Layer 2 provides faster convergence than Layer 3. B. Layer 2 STP path blocking should always be used. C. Layer 2 domains should be limited to point-to-point.

12 D. Layer 2 should not be used in the core layer. /Reference: QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes a feature of this spanning-tree topology? A. VLANs are restricted to access-switch pairs. B. Port density at the aggregation layer can be difficult. C. The use of distributed EtherChannel is recommended. D. Only one aggregation-to-access uplink is active at a given time. /Reference: QUESTION 29 Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series line card is recommended for aggregation-to-core uplinks? A. WS-X6724-SFP B. WS-X GE C. WS-X6516A-GBIC D. WS-X6748-GE-TX E. WS-X6548-GE-TX /Reference: QUESTION 30 Refer to the exhibit. A data center network is configured as follows: ACE modules active/active failover pair

13 core-to-aggregation traffic load balanced load balancing via Layer 3 source-destination IP address hashing Which statement represents the best advice? A. The design is correct as shown. B. The design should use RHI to route core-to-aggregation traffic. C. The design should use Layer 2 load balancing for core-to-aggregation traffic. D. The design should use Layer 4 port-based load balancing for core-to-aggregation traffic. /Reference: QUESTION 31 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes a feature of this spanning-tree topology? A. A VLAN can be extended to all access switches. B. Uplinks from both access switches are simultaneously active. C. The density of access switches is higher than in other topologies. D. Uplink failures on access layer switches can break connectivity between servers and service modules in the aggregation layer.

14 /Reference: QUESTION 32 Performance requirements for aggregation-to-aggregation traffic flows through the core layer are being assessed. What type or types of application traffic should be considered? A. multicast traffic B. backup and replication traffic C. traffic through the service modules D. traffic between the web and database tiers of an n-tier application /Reference: QUESTION 33 Which recommendation applies to the aggregation layer? A. Use Layer 2 links to the core. B. Run OSPF on all VLAN interfaces. C. Provide the default gateway at the FWSM via HSRP whenever possible. D. Configure OSPF in the data center as a stub, totally stubby, or NSSA area. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 34 What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments? A. lower latency B. simpler cabling C. longer distance support D. more sophisticated traffic management /Reference: QUESTION 35 According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the

15 data center core layer? A. prefix filtering B. traffic rate limiting C. control plane protection D. Dynamic ARP Inspection /Reference: QUESTION 36 Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series line card requires a Switch Fabric Module? A. CEF256 B. CEF720 C. dcef256 D. classic /Reference: QUESTION 37 Which Cisco Catalyst switch model is recommended for the data center core? A. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch B. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch C. Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 or 6513 Switch /Reference: QUESTION 38 Which two security vulnerabilities does the FWSM application inspection engine mitigate? (Choose two.) A. DoS attacks B. DDoS attacks C. SQL injection D. cookie altering E. web server worms D

16 /Reference: QUESTION 39 The Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch supports which power supply configuration? A. single AC power supply only B. dual AC power supplies only C. single AC or DC power supply D. dual AC or DC power supplies Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 40 What is a benefit of service virtualization? A. reduced network latency B. reduced power consumption C. increased network performance D. increased oversubscription ratios /Reference: QUESTION 41 Refer to the exhibit. In an IBM mainframe configuration, an LPAR is expected to require 100 Mbps. How many physical Gigabit Ethernet mainframe interfaces are required to support this configuration? A. one B. two C. three D. four E. Interface is unsupported on mainframes.

17 /Reference: QUESTION 42 Why would you recommend a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch instead of a Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch in an aggregation module design? A. A larger number of horizontally aligned slots are needed. B. A larger number of 10-Gigabit Ethernet ports are needed. C. A larger number of service modules are needed. D. A larger number of single-channel line cards will be used. /Reference: QUESTION 43 Which recommendation applies to OSPF in the data center core? A. Do not permit route distribution with RHI. B. Run OSPF on all VLANs to reduce convergence time. C. Adjust OSPF reference bandwidth for VLANs with 10-Gigabit Ethernet links. D. Advertise all routes into a NSSA and summarize default routes out. /Reference: QUESTION 44 Which statement best describes two-tier data center networks? A. fewer links B. better fault isolation C. more frequent switch upgrades D. simplified routing-protocol peering /Reference: QUESTION 45 How do blade servers connect to Cisco Catalyst blade switch cards?

18 A. internal chassis connections B. cabling to 10/100 Ethernet ports on the blade switches C. cabling to Gigabit Ethernet ports on the blade switches D. cabling to 10-Gigabit Ethernet ports on the blade switches /Reference: QUESTION 46 Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is filling server racks sequentially, filling one rack before beginning the next. Which two access layer designs present challenges in this environment? (Choose two.) A. Layer 3 B. Layer 2 loop-free U C. Layer 2 looped square D. Layer 2 looped triangle E. Layer 2 loop-free inverted U B /Reference: QUESTION 47 Which of the following techniques should be used to mitigate DDoS attacks in the data center access layer?

19 A. VACLs B. PVLANs C. Dynamic ARP Inspection D. Reverse Path Forwarding /Reference: QUESTION 48 Which service module configuration is recommended to automatically detect and block traffic from malicious hosts? A. FWSM B. IDSM that is deployed in IDS mode C. IDSM that is deployed in IPS mode D. FWSM that is coupled with the NAM /Reference: QUESTION 49 Which statement is correct about Cisco Catalyst 6500 E-Series Switches? A. They do not support CEF720 line cards. B. All their FRUs are compatible with older Catalyst 6500 chassis. C. They require different Cisco IOS code trains than older Catalyst 6500 chassis. D. They support all existing supervisors, line cards, switch fabrics, and software releases. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 50 Refer to the exhibit. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs?

20 A. loop-free U B. looped square C. looped triangle D. loop-free inverted U /Reference: QUESTION 51 Which feature is found in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 E-Series chassis but not in the older Catalyst 6500 chassis? A. Power-over-Ethernet B. increased cooling capacity C. aggregation layer switching D. high-performance computing support /Reference: QUESTION 52 Which statement describes the performance requirements for a synchronous data-replication application using FCIP? A. bursty throughput and latency-sensitive B. bursty throughput but not latency-sensitive C. sustained moderate throughput and latency-sensitive D. sustained moderate throughput but not latency-sensitive /Reference:

21 QUESTION 53 Which access layer design helps reduce oversubscription? A. loop-free with HSRP B. loop-free with GLBP C. loop-free with VRRP D. looped square with HSRP E. looped square with GLBP /Reference: QUESTION 54 In a data-center access layer switch failure, which design would help reduce convergence time? A. integrated blade server switches B. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in a top-of-rack configuration C. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration D. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. What would you recommend to a customer who is almost out of slots for 10-Gigabit Ethernet connections in the aggregation module?

22 A. Add a second aggregation module. B. Move the CSM modules to separate service layer switches. C. Move the CSM modules to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switches. D. Upgrade the Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switches in the aggregation layer to Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switches. /Reference: QUESTION 56 Refer to the exhibit. Asymmetric connection attempts in the aggregation layer are occurring on redundant FWSM modules. Which change might prevent this problem?

23 A. Add more FWSM modules to each Catalyst 6500 switch. B. Reduce the oversubscription on the aggregation-to-access links. C. Configure round-robin load balancing between the FWSM modules. D. Increase the number of links in the EtherChannel between Catalyst 6500-A and Catalyst 6500-B. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 57 Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 LACP EtherChannel is being used to exchange FWSM state information. What can be done to increase EtherChannel reliability? A. Use a Layer 2 EtherChannel. B. Add a link to the EtherChannel. C. Use a Layer 3 PAgP EtherChannel. D. Put each link on a different line card. E. Put each link in a different port group. Correct Answer: D /Reference:

24 QUESTION 58 Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid? A. Layer 3 B. InfiniBand C. Layer 2 loop-free D. Layer 2 looped square E. Layer 2 looped triangle /Reference: QUESTION 59 Your customer wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. What must be configured? A. distinct VLAN for each department B. separate ACL group for each department C. unique firewall context for each department D. individual security level for each department /Reference: QUESTION 60 Refer to the exhibit. An aggregation module with service switches is being configured. On which link (A-D) should STP blocking be configured? A. link A B. link B C. link C

25 D. link D Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 61 Which problem can result from end-of-rack designs? A. lower reliability B. airflow restriction C. more devices to manage D. complex spanning-tree design /Reference: QUESTION 62 Your customer wants to use distinct security policies for different departments. What must be configured? A. distinct VLAN for each department B. separate ACL group for each department C. unique firewall context for each department D. individual security level for each department /Reference: QUESTION 63 According to Cisco best practice, which service module should be placed in service switches within the aggregation layer? A. NAM B. CSM C. IDSM D. FWSM /Reference: QUESTION 64

26 According to the Cisco Network Foundation Protection model, which security feature is recommended for the data center core layer? A. prefix filtering B. traffic rate limiting C. control plane protection D. Dynamic ARP Inspection /Reference: QUESTION 65 Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series line card is recommended for aggregation-to-core uplinks? A. WS-X6724-SFP B. WS-X GE C. WS-X6516A-GBIC D. WS-X6748-GE-TX E. WS-X6548-GE-TX /Reference: QUESTION 66 Which statement is correct about Cisco Catalyst 6500 E-Series Switches? A. They do not support CEF720 line cards. B. All their FRUs are compatible with older Catalyst 6500 chassis. C. They require different Cisco IOS code trains than older Catalyst 6500 chassis. D. They support all existing supervisors, line cards, switch fabrics, and software releases. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 67 Which of the following attack types should be mitigated in the data center core layer? A. port scans B. IP spoofing C. DDoS attacks D. MAC address spoofing

27 /Reference: QUESTION 68 What advantage do 10-Gigabit Ethernet uplinks have over EtherChannels? A. more reliable B. higher bandwidth C. faster convergence time D. better load balancing of traffic Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. An aggregation module with service switches is being configured. On which link (A-D) should STP blocking be configured? A. link A B. link B C. link C D. link D Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 70 A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which access layer option would you recommend?

28 A. blade server Ethernet switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch B. blade server InfiniBand switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch C. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 4948 top-of-rack switch D. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series end-of-rack switch /Reference: QUESTION 71 Which two of the following are appropriate choices for mainframe IP connectivity? (Choose two.) A. OSA mainframe ports that are attached directly to aggregation switches B. OSA mainframe ports that are attached to Cisco Catalyst 7500 Series Routers with ESCON cards C. OSA mainframe ports that are attached to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with ESCON cards D. ESCON mainframe ports that are attached to Cisco Catalyst 7200 Series Routers with ESCON cards E. ESCON mainframe ports that are attached to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with ESCON cards D /Reference: QUESTION 72 Which Cisco Catalyst switch model is recommended for the data center core? A. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch B. Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch C. Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch D. Cisco Catalyst 6509 or 6513 Switch /Reference: QUESTION 73 Which statement best describes the data center core layer? A. connects to the campus aggregation layer B. provides a resilient Layer 2 routed fabric C. is typically merged with the campus core layer D. load balances traffic between the core and aggregation layers Correct Answer: D

29 /Reference: QUESTION 74 How do you configure an FWSM to support multiple DMZs on a network? A. Use routed mode. B. Use Layer 3 mode. C. Use transparent mode. D. Use multiple-context mode. /Reference: QUESTION 75 Which of the following techniques should be used to mitigate DDoS attacks in the data center access layer? A. VACLs B. PVLANs C. Dynamic ARP Inspection D. Reverse Path Forwarding /Reference: QUESTION 76 Which recommendation applies to OSPF in the data center core? A. Do not permit route distribution with RHI. B. Run OSPF on all VLANs to reduce convergence time. C. Adjust OSPF reference bandwidth for VLANs with 10-Gigabit Ethernet links. D. Advertise all routes into a NSSA and summarize default routes out. /Reference: QUESTION 77 Which feature is found in a Cisco Catalyst 6500 E-Series chassis but not in the older Catalyst 6500 chassis? A. Power-over-Ethernet B. increased cooling capacity C. aggregation layer switching D. high-performance computing support

30 /Reference: QUESTION 78 Which two security vulnerabilities does the FWSM application inspection engine mitigate? (Choose two.) A. DoS attacks B. DDoS attacks C. SQL injection D. cookie altering E. web server worms D /Reference: QUESTION 79 Refer to the exhibit. A data center network is configured as follows: ACE modules active/active failover pair core-to-aggregation traffic load balanced load balancing via Layer 3 source-destination IP address hashing Which statement represents the best advice? A. The design is correct as shown. B. The design should use RHI to route core-to-aggregation traffic.

31 C. The design should use Layer 2 load balancing for core-to-aggregation traffic. D. The design should use Layer 4 port-based load balancing for core-to-aggregation traffic. /Reference: QUESTION 80 The Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch supports which power supply configuration? A. single AC power supply only B. dual AC power supplies only C. single AC or DC power supply D. dual AC or DC power supplies Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 81 Refer to the exhibit. What is a feature of this spanning-tree topology? A. VLANs are not restricted to access-switch pairs. B. Only one aggregation-to-access uplink is active at a given time. C. If the link between access-switch pairs is broken, the return IP path may be broken. D. Uplink failures on access layer switches will not break connectivity between servers and service modules in the aggregation layer. /Reference:

32 QUESTION 82 Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services? A. model A B. model B C. model C D. model D /Reference: QUESTION 83 Which statement describes an IDSM module operating in inline rather than promiscuous mode? A. lower latency B. higher latency C. lower throughput D. higher throughput E. higher latency and lower throughput F. lower latency and higher throughput /Reference: QUESTION 84 Which statement describes the aggregation layer? A. It has a small STP processing load.

33 B. It does not process server-to-server flows. C. It maintains session state and connection tables for redundancy. D. Changing application requirements lead to higher oversubscription. /Reference: QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. Your customer is filling server racks sequentially, filling one rack before beginning the next. Which two access layer designs present challenges in this environment? (Choose two.) A. Layer 3 B. Layer 2 loop-free U C. Layer 2 looped square D. Layer 2 looped triangle E. Layer 2 loop-free inverted U B /Reference: QUESTION 86 Which statement best describes two-tier data center networks? A. fewer links B. better fault isolation

34 C. more frequent switch upgrades D. simplified routing-protocol peering /Reference: QUESTION 87 Which Cisco Server Fabric Switch model provides up to 12 InfiniBand ports and up to 6 Ethernet ports? A. SFS 3001 B. SFS 3012 C. SFS 7008P D. SFS 7012D /Reference: QUESTION 88 Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 LACP EtherChannel is being used to exchange FWSM state information. What can be done to increase EtherChannel reliability? A. Use a Layer 2 EtherChannel. B. Add a link to the EtherChannel. C. Use a Layer 3 PAgP EtherChannel. D. Put each link on a different line card. E. Put each link in a different port group. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 89 Which layer connects to the campus core in a large data center network? A. data center core

35 B. data center access C. data center service D. data center aggregation /Reference: QUESTION 90 Refer to the exhibit. What is one of the features of this spanning-tree topology? A. Uplinks from both access switches are simultaneously active. B. Lower access-switch density is supported as compared to other topologies. C. Traffic must traverse the aggregation layer EtherChannel to load balance uplinks. D. Both VLANs can be extended to all access switches that are attached to the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 91 Performance requirements for aggregation-to-aggregation traffic flows through the core layer are being assessed. What type or types of application traffic should be considered? A. multicast traffic B. backup and replication traffic C. traffic through the service modules D. traffic between the web and database tiers of an n-tier application /Reference:

36 QUESTION 92 Which statement is correct about the Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch? A. is nonblocking B. performs only Layer 2 switching C. has up to 48-Gbps wire-speed performance D. balances lower cost with lower-performance access layer switching /Reference: QUESTION 93 Which of the following statements describes the data center core? A. Layer 2 provides faster convergence than Layer 3. B. Layer 2 STP path blocking should always be used. C. Layer 2 domains should be limited to point-to-point. D. Layer 2 should not be used in the core layer. /Reference: QUESTION 94 Refer to the exhibit. Which security technique would you use to tune DoS attack mitigation for each individual application? A. VACLs B. router ACLs C. control plane policing D. drop and shutdown thresholds

37 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 95 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes a feature of this spanning-tree topology? A. A VLAN can be extended to all access switches. B. Uplinks from both access switches are simultaneously active. C. The density of access switches is higher than in other topologies. D. Uplink failures on access layer switches can break connectivity between servers and service modules in the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 96 Which Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series line card requires a Switch Fabric Module? A. CEF256 B. CEF720 C. dcef256 D. classic /Reference: QUESTION 97 Refer to the exhibit. In an IBM mainframe configuration, an LPAR is expected to require 100 Mbps. How many physical Gigabit Ethernet mainframe interfaces are required to support this configuration?

38 A. one B. two C. three D. four E. Interface is unsupported on mainframes. /Reference: QUESTION 98 Which access layer design helps reduce oversubscription? A. loop-free with HSRP B. loop-free with GLBP C. loop-free with VRRP D. looped square with HSRP E. looped square with GLBP /Reference: QUESTION 99 Refer to the exhibit. Where is Layer 2 adjacency required?

39 A. server-to-server only B. access-to-server only C. aggregation-to-access only D. aggregation-to-access and access-to-server /Reference: QUESTION 100 Why are server-to-server traffic flows routed through the aggregation layer? A. They are routed to provide increased fault-tolerance and smaller STP domains. B. They are routed to provide load-balancing services between web and application servers. C. They are routed because individual access modules cannot scale to large HPC deployments. D. Server-to-server traffic flows should never be routed through the aggregation layer. /Reference:

40 QUESTION 101 Refer to the exhibit. What do you need to configure to prevent spanning-tree loops from occurring between the two FWSMs? A. FWSMs in transparent mode B. ethertype ACLs to allow BPDUs C. FWSMs in multiple-context mode D. failover and state interfaces on the same VLAN /Reference: QUESTION 102 What is a benefit of service virtualization? A. reduced network latency B. reduced power consumption C. increased network performance D. increased oversubscription ratios /Reference:

41 QUESTION 103 Which statement describes the performance requirements for a synchronous data-replication application using FCIP? A. bursty throughput and latency-sensitive B. bursty throughput but not latency-sensitive C. sustained moderate throughput and latency-sensitive D. sustained moderate throughput but not latency-sensitive /Reference: QUESTION 104 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes a feature of this spanning-tree topology? A. VLANs are restricted to access-switch pairs. B. Port density at the aggregation layer can be difficult. C. The use of distributed EtherChannel is recommended. D. Only one aggregation-to-access uplink is active at a given time. /Reference: QUESTION 105 Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies? A. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger

42 C. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller D. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller /Reference: QUESTION 106 When hosts are noncompliant with security policies, which Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch feature allows them to be isolated from the network? A. NAC B. private VLANs C. IP Source Guard D. unicast MAC filtering /Reference: QUESTION 107 Which recommendation applies to the aggregation layer? A. Use Layer 2 links to the core. B. Run OSPF on all VLAN interfaces. C. Provide the default gateway at the FWSM via HSRP whenever possible. D. Configure OSPF in the data center as a stub, totally stubby, or NSSA area. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 108 In a data-center access layer switch failure, which design would help reduce convergence time? A. integrated blade server switches B. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in a top-of-rack configuration C. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration D. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration Correct Answer: D /Reference:

43 QUESTION 109 Refer to the exhibit. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs? A. loop-free U B. looped square C. looped triangle D. loop-free inverted U /Reference: QUESTION 110 How do blade servers connect to Cisco Catalyst blade switch cards? A. internal chassis connections B. cabling to 10/100 Ethernet ports on the blade switches C. cabling to Gigabit Ethernet ports on the blade switches D. cabling to 10-Gigabit Ethernet ports on the blade switches /Reference: QUESTION 111 Why would you recommend a Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switch instead of a Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switch in an aggregation module design? A. A larger number of horizontally aligned slots are needed. B. A larger number of 10-Gigabit Ethernet ports are needed. C. A larger number of service modules are needed. D. A larger number of single-channel line cards will be used.

44 /Reference: QUESTION 112 Which type of HPC application requires low latency? A. financial analytics B. finite element analysis C. digital image rendering D. seismic and geophysical modeling /Reference: QUESTION 113 Which service module configuration is recommended to automatically detect and block traffic from malicious hosts? A. FWSM B. IDSM that is deployed in IDS mode C. IDSM that is deployed in IPS mode D. FWSM that is coupled with the NAM /Reference: QUESTION 114 Which type of network in an HPC environment most requires low latency? A. MPI B. access C. private D. storage /Reference: QUESTION 115 What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments? A. lower latency

45 B. simpler cabling C. longer distance support D. more sophisticated traffic management /Reference: QUESTION 116 Refer to the exhibit. What would you recommend to a customer who is almost out of slots for 10-Gigabit Ethernet connections in the aggregation module? A. Add a second aggregation module. B. Move the CSM modules to separate service layer switches. C. Move the CSM modules to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switches. D. Upgrade the Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switches in the aggregation layer to Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switches. /Reference: QUESTION 117 What is the Cisco best-practice recommendation for the maximum number of HSRP instances per aggregation module? A. 3 B. 30

46 C. 300 D. no recommended maximum /Reference: QUESTION 118 Refer to the exhibit. Asymmetric connection attempts in the aggregation layer are occurring on redundant FWSM modules. Which change might prevent this problem? A. Add more FWSM modules to each Catalyst 6500 switch. B. Reduce the oversubscription on the aggregation-to-access links. C. Configure round-robin load balancing between the FWSM modules. D. Increase the number of links in the EtherChannel between Catalyst 6500-A and Catalyst 6500-B. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 119 Which three of the following service modules can be deployed in redundant pairs with active/active failover? (Choose three.) A. ACE B. CSM C. NAM D. IDSM E. FWSM F. SSLSM

47 DE /Reference: QUESTION 120 Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid? A. Layer 3 B. InfiniBand C. Layer 2 loop-free D. Layer 2 looped square E. Layer 2 looped triangle /Reference: QUESTION 121 Refer to the exhibit. A failure occurs on one of the access layer uplinks. Which Layer 2 topology can cause a break in connectivity between the FWSMs? A. loop-free U B. looped square C. looped triangle D. loop-free inverted U /Reference: QUESTION 122 Which type of HPC application requires low latency?

48 A. financial analytics B. finite element analysis C. digital image rendering D. seismic and geophysical modeling /Reference: QUESTION 123 Which type of network in an HPC environment most requires low latency? A. MPI B. access C. private D. storage /Reference: QUESTION 124 Refer to the exhibit. What would you recommend to a customer who is almost out of slots for 10-Gigabit Ethernet connections in the aggregation module? A. Add a second aggregation module.

49 B. Move the CSM modules to separate service layer switches. C. Move the CSM modules to the access layer Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switches. D. Upgrade the Cisco Catalyst 6509 Switches in the aggregation layer to Cisco Catalyst 6513 Switches. /Reference: QUESTION 125 Refer to the exhibit. Asymmetric connection attempts in the aggregation layer are occurring on redundant FWSM modules. Which change might prevent this problem? A. Add more FWSM modules to each Catalyst 6500 switch. B. Reduce the oversubscription on the aggregation-to-access links. C. Configure round-robin load balancing between the FWSM modules. D. Increase the number of links in the EtherChannel between Catalyst 6500-A and Catalyst 6500-B. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 126 How many FWSM modules are needed to support 8 Gbps of throughput through an aggregation module? A. one B. two C. four D. eight

50 /Reference: QUESTION 127 Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services? A. model A B. model B C. model C D. model D /Reference: QUESTION 128 Refer to the exhibit. What is one of the features of this spanning-tree topology?

51 A. Uplinks from both access switches are simultaneously active. B. Lower access-switch density is supported as compared to other topologies. C. Traffic must traverse the aggregation layer EtherChannel to load balance uplinks. D. Both VLANs can be extended to all access switches that are attached to the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 129 Which statement best describes two-tier data center networks? A. fewer links B. better fault isolation C. more frequent switch upgrades D. simplified routing-protocol peering /Reference: QUESTION 130 Which statement is correct about Cisco Catalyst 6500 E-Series Switches? A. They do not support CEF720 line cards. B. All their FRUs are compatible with older Catalyst 6500 chassis. C. They require different Cisco IOS code trains than older Catalyst 6500 chassis. D. They support all existing supervisors, line cards, switch fabrics, and software releases. Correct Answer: D

52 /Reference: QUESTION 131 In a data-center access layer switch failure, which design would help reduce convergence time? A. integrated blade server switches B. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in a top-of-rack configuration C. Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration D. Cisco Catalyst 6506 Switch in an end-of-rack configuration Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 132 A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which access layer option would you recommend? A. blade server Ethernet switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch B. blade server InfiniBand switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch C. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 4948 top-of-rack switch D. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series end-of-rack switch /Reference: QUESTION 133 What is the total bandwidth available to a Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series CEF720 line card? A. 16 Gbps B. 20 Gbps C. 32 Gbps D. 40 Gbps E. 48 Gbps Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 134 Why are server-to-server traffic flows routed through the aggregation layer? A. They are routed to provide increased fault-tolerance and smaller STP domains. B. They are routed to provide load-balancing services between web and application servers.

53 C. They are routed because individual access modules cannot scale to large HPC deployments. D. Server-to-server traffic flows should never be routed through the aggregation layer. /Reference: QUESTION 135 Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services? A. model A B. model B C. model C D. model D /Reference: QUESTION 136 Which of the following statements describes the data center core? A. Layer 2 provides faster convergence than Layer 3. B. Layer 2 STP path blocking should always be used. C. Layer 2 domains should be limited to point-to-point. D. Layer 2 should not be used in the core layer. /Reference:

54 QUESTION 137 When hosts are noncompliant with security policies, which Cisco Catalyst 4948 Switch feature allows them to be isolated from the network? A. NAC B. private VLANs C. IP Source Guard D. unicast MAC filtering /Reference: QUESTION 138 Which type of network in an HPC environment most requires low latency? A. MPI B. access C. private D. storage /Reference: QUESTION 139 Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid? A. Layer 3 B. InfiniBand C. Layer 2 loop-free D. Layer 2 looped square E. Layer 2 looped triangle /Reference: QUESTION 140 Which statement best describes two-tier data center networks? A. fewer links B. better fault isolation C. more frequent switch upgrades

55 D. simplified routing-protocol peering /Reference: