Cisco Testinside Exam Bundle

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1 Cisco Testinside Exam Bundle Number: Passing Score: 950 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: Cisco Exam Bundle Exam Name: Cisco Cisco Certified Network Associate

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.) A. PDU #1 is a frame. B. PDU #2 is an application layer PDU. C. PDU #3 is a segment. D. PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU. E. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2. F. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 2, 1, 4, 3. Correct Answer: ACE /Reference: QUESTION 2 Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.) A. SMTP B. FTP C. SNMP D. HTTP E. TFTP F. DHCP Correct Answer: ABD /Reference: QUESTION 3

3 Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.) A. Telnet B. SNMP C. SMTP D. SQL E. TFTP Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 4 What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.) A. establishment of logical connections between source and destination hosts B. end-to-end flow control C. determination of best paths through the network D. definition of the procedures used to interface with the network hardware E. packet switching F. Layer 5 and Layer 6 OSI model functions Correct Answer: CE /Reference: QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.) A. 3 collision domains B. 3 broadcast domains C. 5 broadcast domains D. 9 collision domains E. 10 collision domains

4 F. 13 collision domains Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 6 What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.) A. improper placement of enterprise level servers B. addition of hosts to a physical segment C. replacement of hubs with workgroup switches D. increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications E. creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts F. migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN Correct Answer: ABD /Reference: QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows? A. 1) fast forward 2) fragment free 3) store-and-forward

5 B. 1) store-and-forward 2) fragment free 3) fast forward C. 1) fragment free 2) fast forward 3) store-and-forward D. 1) fast forward 2) store-and-forward 3) fragment free Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this command: Sw1# telnet A. All packets will be dropped. B. The Telnet session will succeed. C. An error message that says Session terminated will appear. D. An error message that says Password required, but none set will appear. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 9

6 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands or groups of commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.) A. SW_1(config)# username david password class B. SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15 SW_1(config-line)# login SW_1(config-line)# password cisco C. SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15 SW_1(config-line)# login local SW_1(config-line)# transport input ssh D. SW_1(config)# login ssh SW_1(config)# password class E. SW_1(config)# login key rsa SW_1(config)# password cisco F. SW_1(config)# password encrypted cisco Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 10 Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate? A Q B. CDP C. RIP D. RSTP Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 11

7 Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B? A. Spanning Tree B. RIP v2 C. IEEE 802.1Q D. ARP E. Rapid Spanning Tree Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 12 Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.) A. listening B. learning C. blocking D. disabled E. forwarding Correct Answer: ACD /Reference: QUESTION 13 What eliminates switching loops? A. hold-down timers B. poison reverse C. spanning tree protocol D. time to live E. VTP Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 14

8 A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.) A. Switch(config-if)# vlan all B. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30 C. Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all D. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q F. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation isl Correct Answer: DE /Reference: QUESTION 15 A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands and error message appear as follows: Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode. What is the problem? A. The switch port is configured as an access mode port. B. The switch port does not support trunking on this port. C. The encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be placed in trunk mode. D. The no switchport trunk encapsulation auto command needs to be applied to the switch port before trunking can be enabled. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 16 Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration appropriate? RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address

9 A. B. C. D.

10 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would correct the problem? A. RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1 RT_1(config-if)# no shutdown B. SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode client C. RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1 RT_1(config-if)# encapsulation trunk dot1q 24 D. SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk E. SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1 Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 18

11 Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwB switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type. Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message? A. The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch. B. The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches. C. The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches. D. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port. E. The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 19 Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch? A. designated switch B. edge switch C. root bridge D. enabled bridge

12 E. local bridge Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 20 Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces? A /27 B /27 C /27 D /30 E /30 F /30 Correct Answer: F /Reference: QUESTION 21 Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses that are required on router B? A. /26 B. /27 C. /28

13 D. /29 E. /30 Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 22 Given the IP address and subnet mask of , on which subnetwork does this address reside? A B C D E F Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 23 The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year. Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses? A. dual stack B. 6to4 tunnel C. manual tunneling D. NAT-PT Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 24

14 Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.) A. The default gateway configured on the network administrator's workstation is not a valid host address. B. The default gateway configured on the TFTP server in incorrect. C. The IP address of the TFTP server is a subnetwork address. D. The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of the Heliopolis router is a broadcast address. E. The IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet. Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 25 What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.) A /8 B /14 C /12 D /12 E /24 F /16 Correct Answer: ADF /Reference: QUESTION 26 Consider this router output: Router# confug Translating "confug"...domain server ( )

15 Translating "confug"...domain server ( ) ( )% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address What command could help with this situation? A. ip dhcp server B. no ip domain-lookup C. no logging synchronous D. no show ip nat translations Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 27 After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored? A. flash B. ROM C. NVRAM D. RAM E. the configuration register F. a TFTP server Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 28 Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet is typed. The response that is given is this: Trying Open Password required, but none set

16 What is the most likely problem? A. The router has been configured as a firewall. B. The Telnet server process must be activated on the router. C. The switch has not been configured to pass Telnet traffic. D. The enable secret command has not been entered on RtrA. E. The password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA. F. The password and login commands need to be configured on the console port of RtrA. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 29 What is associated with link-state routing protocols? A. low processor overhead B. poison reverse C. routing loops D. split horizon E. shortest-path first calculations Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 30 What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers. B. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. C. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. D. The database information for each router is obtained from the same source. E. Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router. Correct Answer: BC /Reference: QUESTION 31 A router has learned about network through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes? A. D /24 [90/ ] via , 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0 B. O /24 [110/1012] via , 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0

17 C. R /24 [120/1] via , 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0 D. S /24 [1/0] via Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 32 Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF? A. router ospf 1 network B. router ospf 1 network area 0 network area 0 C. router ospf 1 network network D. router ospf 1 network area 0 Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 33 What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use? A. to activate the OSPF neighboring process B. to influence the DR/BDR election process C. to provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process D. to streamline and speed up the convergence process

18 Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 34 Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered? A. B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network B. B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network B(config-router)#network C. B(config-router)# network area 0 B(config-router)# network area 0 B(config-router)#network area 0 D. B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)#network as 100 E. B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network B(config-router)# network F. B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)# network as 100 B(config-router)# network as 100 G. B(config-router)# network area 100 B(config-router)# network area 100 B(config-router)# network area 100 B(config-router)# network area 100 B(config-router)# network area 100 Correct Answer: B

19 /Reference: QUESTION 35 Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem? A. EIGRP does not support VLSM. B. The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes. C. The default bandwidth was used on the routers. D. An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 36 Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.) A. ip summary-address eigrp B. ip area-range eigrp C. summary-address D. ip summary-address eigrp E. serial interface on router A F. serial interface on router B Correct Answer: AE

20 /Reference: QUESTION 37 Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a destination network? A. Router# show ip interfaces brief B. Router# show ip route C. Router# show cdp neighbors D. Router# show running-config E. Router# show protocols Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 38 Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.) A. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route. B. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route. C. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100. D. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120. E. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter R. F. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C. Correct Answer: ADF /Reference: QUESTION 39 The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)

21 A. The clock rate is not set on the DTE. B. An incorrect default gateway is set on the router. C. A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration. D. The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect. E. Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device. Correct Answer: DE /Reference: QUESTION 40 Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router? A. Router1(config)# interface loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address B. Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0 Router1(config-if)# loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address C. Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0 Router1(config-if)# loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address D. Router1(config)# interface loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 41 Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an standards-based wireless network environment? A. ACDP, which has more bits that are used for encryption than CDP has B. WPA2, which can use the more advanced AES for encryption C. VTP, which is compatible with all type wireless networks D. RSA, which has a different algorithm than any of the older standards E X EAP, which is the most powerful type of encryption used for both wired and wireless networks Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 42 Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement? (Choose three.)

22 A. access list number between 1 and 99 B. access list number between 100 and 199 C. default gateway address and wildcard mask D. destination address and wildcard mask E. source address and wildcard mask F. source subnet mask and wildcard mask G. destination subnet mask and wildcard mask Correct Answer: BDE /Reference: QUESTION 43 Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.) A. most B. host C. all D. any E. some F. gt Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 44 What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask ? (Choose two.) A. The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. B. The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. C. The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched. D. The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched. E. The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored. F. The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be matched. Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 45 Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.) A. show ip route

23 B. show processes C. show running-config D. show cdp neighbor E. show access-lists Correct Answer: CE /Reference: QUESTION 46 Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses through What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet? A. Because the ISP has knowledge of the directly connected network, no route is needed. B. A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number and the mask C. A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/0 or the IP address. D. A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/1 or the IP address. E. A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number and the mask Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 47 A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which three factors might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)

24 A. establishes identities with a two-way handshake B. uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities C. control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events D. transmits login information in encrypted format E. uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks F. makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session Correct Answer: BDE /Reference: QUESTION 48 Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the status of the PPP connection? A. Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully. B. Only the network-layer phase completed successfully. C. Neither the link-establishment phase nor the network-layer phase completed successfully. D. Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 49 Which three statements are true about PPP? (Choose three.) A. PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous circuits. B. PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices. C. PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.

25 D. PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection. E. PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection. Correct Answer: ADE /Reference: QUESTION 50 Which three statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.) A. The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism. B. The LMI type must always be manually configured. C. The available LMI types are CHAP and PAP. D. The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF. E. The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch. F. The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE. Correct Answer: AEF /Reference: QUESTION 51 What are two characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.) A. data transport reliability B. best path determination C. establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits D. encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses E. best-effort datagram delivery Correct Answer: AC /Reference: QUESTION 52

26 Refer to the exhibit. What type of Layer 2 encapsulation will be used for connection D on the basis of this configuration on a newly installed router: RtrA(config)# interface serial0/0/0 RtrA(config-if)# ip address RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown A. Ethernet B. Frame Relay C. HDLC D. PPP Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 53 What are three examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.) A. a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices B. a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices C. a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet D. a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer E. a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console F. a protocol that conducts a test of the path through which a packet travels from source to destination Correct Answer: ACE /Reference: QUESTION 54 Which three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.) A. improper placement of enterprise level servers B. addition of hosts to a physical segment C. replacement of hubs with workgroup switches

27 D. increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications E. creation of new collision domains without first adding network hosts F. migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN Correct Answer: ABD /Reference: QUESTION 55 Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch fl-1 are in the Production VLAN and all ports on switch fl-2 are in the Development VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are in the network? (Choose two.) A. one broadcast domain B. three broadcast domains C. three collision domains D. five broadcast domains E. nine collision domains F. ten collision domains Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 56

28 Refer to the exhibit. VLAN10 and VLAN20 have been created on SW_1 and SW_2 and switch ports have been assigned to the appropriate VLAN. Workstations in VLAN 10 can ping workstations in VLAN 10 that connect to either switch, but workstations in VLAN 20 cannot ping workstations in VLAN 20 on the opposite switch. Based on the output, what is most likely the problem? A. FA 0/1 on SW_1 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20. B. FA 0/1 on SW_2 needs to be assigned to VLAN 20. C. VTP is not working properly between SW_1 and SW_2. D. Interfaces FA0/1 on SW_1 and SW_2 need to be configured as trunk ports. E. Interfaces FA0/3 on both switches need to be configured as access ports. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 57 A Catalyst switch must be in which VTP mode in order to delete or add VLANs to a management domain? A. client B. server C. domain D. transparent E. designated Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 58 What creates a loop-free path through a switch network? A. hold-down timers

29 B. poison reverse C. Spanning Tree Protocol D. Time to Live E. Split Horizon Protocol F. Routing Information Protocol Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 59 Refer to the exhibit. Which three hosts will receive ARP requests from host A, assuming that port Fa0/4 on both switches is configured to carry traffic for multiple VLANs? (Choose three.) A. host B B. host C C. host D D. host E E. host F F. host G Correct Answer: BCE

30 /Reference: QUESTION 60 What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)? A. prevents Layer 2 loops B. prevents routing loops on a router C. creates smaller collision domains D. creates smaller broadcast domains E. allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 61 Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol? A. Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state. B. Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state. C. Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state. D. It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding. Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 62 Refer to the exhibit. Two VLANs have been configured on the switch and hosts have been assigned. Hosts in the Sales VLAN can ping all hosts in their own VLAN, but cannot ping the hosts in the HR VLAN. What are two explanations for this problem? (Choose two.) A. All hosts are in one collision domain. B. All hosts are in one broadcast domain. C. A router is required for communication between VLANs. D. The hosts are in separate broadcast domains. E. The management VLAN has not been assigned an IP address.

31 Correct Answer: CD /Reference: QUESTION 63 Refer to the exhibit. Which command needs to be used on router interface Fa 0/1 to complete the VLAN configuration? A. RT_1(config)# trunk encapsulation dot1q B. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 10 C. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation negotiate D. RT_1(config-subif)# encapsulation 802.1q E. RT_1(config)# vlan encapsulation dot1q Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 64

32 Refer to the exhibit. Computer A is configured with an IP address of and cannot ping RT_1. What is most likely the problem? A. SW_1 FastEthernet interface 0/24 is not a trunk port. B. The RT_1 FastEthernet 0/1.10 is not configured for VLANs. C. The FastEthernet port 0/1 on SW_1 is configured for VLAN 20. D. The management VLAN does not have an IP address assigned to the same VLAN. E. The IP address of computer A is incorrect. Correct Answer: E /Reference: QUESTION 65 Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwB switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type.

33 Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message? A. The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch. B. The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches. C. The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches. D. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port. E. The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 66 Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology? A. VLSM B. PVST C Q D. RSTP E. VTP Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 67

34 Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.) A. SW1 will become the root bridge. B. SW2 will become the root bridge. C. SW2 will get a port blocked. D. SW4 will get a port blocked. E. SW3 will become the root bridge. F. SW4 will become the root bridge. Correct Answer: DE /Reference: QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, why is VLAN 99 missing? A. because there is a cabling problem on VLAN 99 B. because VLAN 99 is not a valid management VLAN C. because VLAN 1 is up and there can only be one management VLAN on the switch D. because VLAN 99 needs to be entered as a VLAN under an interface before it can become an active interface E. because the VLAN 99 has not been manually entered into the VLAN database with the vlan 99 command Correct Answer: E

35 /Reference: QUESTION 69 Refer to the exhibit. What can be concluded from the output that is shown? A. The management VLAN is VLAN 99. B. The only VLAN that can be applied to switch ports is VLAN 99. C. The only VLANs that can be applied to switch ports are VLANs 1 and 99. D. The switch will only be able to forward frames for hosts on the network. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 70 Four bits have been borrowed to create subnets. Which three addresses are subnet addresses? (Choose three.) A B C D E F Correct Answer: BDF /Reference: QUESTION 71 Assuming a subnet mask of , which three addresses would be valid host addresses? (Choose three.) A B C D

36 E F Correct Answer: ADF /Reference: QUESTION 72 What type of IP address is /27? A. a useable host address B. a broadcast address C. a network address D. a multicast address E. a public address Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 73 A network administrator needs to configure three local networks. The networks have these requirements: Network hosts Network hosts Network hosts Which three subnet masks will be needed to fulfill these requirements? (Choose three.) A B C D E F G Correct Answer: CDF /Reference: QUESTION 74

37 Refer to the exhibit. What type of header is shown? A. IPv4 B. IPv6 C. TCP D. UDP Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 75 Which address is a valid IPv6 unicast address? A. FE90::1::FFFF B. FD80::1::1234 C. FE80::1:4545:6578:ABC1 D. FEA0::100::7788:998F E. FC90::::5678:4251:FFFF Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 76

38 Refer to the exhibit. Router B should not send routing updates to router A. Which command can be used on router B to prevent RIP from sending these updates? A. passive-interface fastethernet 0/0 B. passive-interface serial 0/0/0 C. access-class 12 out D. access-class 12 in Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 77 Refer to the exhibit. An administrator who is connected to the console of the Peanut router is able to ping the Serial0 and Ethernet0 ports of the Popcorn router but unable to ping its Ethernet1 interface. What are two possible causes for this problem? (Choose two.) A. The serial interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown. B. The Ethernet1 interface of the Popcorn router is shutdown. C. The Popcorn router did not include network in its routing configuration. D. The Popcorn router is not forwarding RIP updates. E. The clock rate is missing from the configuration of one of the routers. Correct Answer: BC

39 /Reference: QUESTION 78 A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and one configured loopback interface is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What does the router OSPF process use to assign the router ID? A. the IP address of the interface that is configured with priority 0 B. the OSPF area ID that is configured on the interface with the highest IP address C. the loopback interface IP address D. the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces E. the highest IP address that is configured on the WAN interfaces Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 79 What table does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm use to calculate the best route to each destination router? A. routing table B. topology table C. DUAL table D. CAM table E. ARP table Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 80 What two measures are used to prevent routing loops in networks that use distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.) A. link-state advertisements (LSA) B. Spanning Tree Protocol C. shortest path first tree D. split horizon E. hold-down timers Correct Answer: DE /Reference:

40 QUESTION 81 What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols? A. They use hop count as their only metric. B. They only send out updates when a new network is added. C. They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors. D. They flood the entire network with routing updates. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 82 A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.) A. RouterA(config)# router ospf 0 B. RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 C. RouterA(config-router)# network D. RouterA(config-router)# network area 0 E. RouterA(config-router)# network Correct Answer: BD /Reference: QUESTION 83 Refer to the exhibit. When the show ip ospf neighbor command is given from the R1# prompt, no output is shown. However, when the show ip interface brief command is given, all interfaces are showing up and up. What is the most likely problem?

41 A. R2 has not brought the S0/0/1 interface up yet. B. R1 or R2 does not have a loopback interface that is configured yet. C. The ISP has not configured a static route for the ABC Company yet. D. R1 or R2 does not have a network statement for the network. E. R1 has not sent a default route down to R2 by using the default-information originate command. Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 84 Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands will configure router A for OSPF? A. router ospf 0 network network B. router ospf 0 network C. router ospf 1 network area 0 network area 0 D. router ospf 1 network network E. router ospf 1 network area 0 Correct Answer: C /Reference:

42 QUESTION 85 Refer to the exhibit. Two switches have been connected with ports that are configured as trunks. After the connection was made, SW2 displayed the status message as shown in the exhibit. What will solve this problem? A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# duplex full B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# full-duplex C. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# duplex full D. SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW2(config-if)# full-duplex Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 86

43 Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured routers RTA and RTB, but cannot ping from serial interface to serial interface. Which layer of the OSI model is the most likely cause of the problem? A. application B. transport C. network D. data link E. physical Correct Answer: D /Reference: QUESTION 87

44 Refer to the exhibit. The XYZ Company hosts web pages for small companies. Based on the exhibited information, what would be an appropriate route for the ISP to configure for the XYZ network? A. ISP(config)# ip route s0/0/1 B. ISP(config)# ip route s/0/0/0 C. ISP(config)# ip route s0/0/1 D. ISP(config)# ip route s0/0/0 E. ISP(config)# ip route s0/0/1 F. ISP(config)# ip route s0/0/1 Correct Answer: F /Reference: QUESTION 88 When is a WLAN a better solution than a LAN? A. when security is an issue B. when user mobility is needed C. when more than one laptop is used in a cubicle D. when electrical interference from surrounding machinery is an issue Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 89 Which wireless standard works only in the 2.4 GHz range and provides speeds up to 54 Mb/s?

45 A a B b C g D i E n Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 90 Refer to the exhibit. An initial configuration is being performed on a new router. The network administrator encounters the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What is the problem? A. The enable secret command has not been issued yet. B. The enable password command has not been issued yet. C. The password command has not been set for the console port. D. The service password-encryption command has not been issued yet. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 91 What guideline is generally followed about the placement of extended access control lists? A. They should be placed as close as possible to the source of the traffic to be denied. B. They should be placed as close as possible to the destination of the traffic to be denied. C. They should be placed on the fastest interface available. D. They should be placed on the destination WAN link. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 92 Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.) A. destination address and wildcard mask

46 B. source address and wildcard mask C. subnet mask and wildcard mask D. access list number between 100 and 199 E. access list number between 1 and 99 Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 93 Refer to the exhibit. A named access list called chemistry_block has been written to prevent users on the Chemistry Network and public Internet from access to the Records Server. All other users within the school should have access to this server. The list contains the following statements: deny permit Which command sequence will place this list to meet these requirements? A. Hera(config)# interface fa0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in B. Hera(config)# interface s0/0/0 Hera(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out C. Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/0 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out D. Apollo(config)# interface s0/0/1 Apollo(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in E. Athena(config)# interface s0/0/1 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block in F. Athena(config)# interface fa0/0 Athena(config-if)# ip access-group chemistry_block out Correct Answer: F

47 /Reference: QUESTION 94 Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading? A. Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address. B. The number of usable addresses that is assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups. C. A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses. D. The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured. Correct Answer: A /Reference: QUESTION 95 What are three Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.) A. BECN B. DLCI C. DE D. FECN E. LMI F. Inverse ARP Correct Answer: ACD /Reference: QUESTION 96 What is the default Layer 2 encapsulation protocol for a synchronous serial interface on a Cisco router? A. PPP B. HDLC C. Frame Relay D. CHAP E. IEEE 802.1Q Correct Answer: B /Reference: QUESTION 97

48 Refer to the exhibit. R3 has the following configuration: R3# show running-config --some output text omitted-- interface serial0 bandwidth 128 ip address encapsulation frame-relay frame-relay map ip broadcast After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what is the problem? A. No clock rate has been configured on interface s0. B. There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement. C. An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement. D. The encapsulation frame-relay command is missing the broadcast keyword. Correct Answer: C /Reference: QUESTION 98 Which network device is commonly used to allow multiple VPN connections into a corporate network? A. ACL B. IDS C. firewall D. concentrator Correct Answer: D /Reference:

49 QUESTION 99 Which two features did WPAv1 add to address the inherent weaknesses found in WEP? (Choose two.) A. a stronger encryption algorithm B. key mixing using temporal keys C. shared key authentication D. a shorter initialization vector E. per frame sequence counters Correct Answer: BE /Reference: QUESTION 100 Refer to the exhibit: After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission? A. B.

50 C. D. E. F. Correct Answer: D /Reference: See below:

51

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