Number: Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: 1.0. Cisco

Transcription

1 Number: Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min File Version: Cisco Introducing Cisco Data Center Technologies

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 Which two are advantages of a modular data center design? (Choose two.) A. complexity B. scalability C. ease of management D. resilience Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 2 Which two describe functions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two.) A. repeater B. high-speed packet switching C. access control D. services layer E. QoS marking Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 3 Which two are functional layers of a collapsed-core LAN design? (Choose two.) A. core B. aggregation

3 C. access D. distribution E. services Correct Answer: AC "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." QUESTION 4 Which three are characteristics of the SAN core-edge design? (Choose three.) A. few devices to manage B. deterministic latency C. lower oversubscription D. fewer ISLs E. easy to analyze and tune performance F. cost-effective for large SANs Correct Answer: BEF QUESTION 5 Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)

4 A. NSF B. Fibre Channel C. CIFS D. SCSI E. iscsi Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 6 Which two are benefits of Cisco Unified Fabric? (Choose two.) A. native AES-256 encryption of data in flight B. consolidation of LAN and SAN over a common transport C. zone port distribution D. reduced cabling E. SNMPv3 strong authentication Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 7

5 Which IEEE protocol provides bandwidth management and priority selection? A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb) B. Enhanced Transmission Selection (802.1Qaz) C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax) D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau) E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab) Correct Answer: B QUESTION 8 How many bits of the IEEE 802.1p CoS field are used to map traffic classes that enable lossless fabric in FCoE? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 6 F. 8 Correct Answer: C QUESTION 9 Which three devices can participate in multihop FCoE? (Choose three.) A. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches B. Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches

6 C. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches D. Cisco Nexus 1000 Series Switches E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Switches Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 10 Which type of interface is created on the Cisco Nexus 5548 Switch to represent ports connected to a FEX? A. HIF (host interface) B. LIF (logical interface) C. connected Ethernet D. SIF (satellite interface) E. VIF (virtual interface) Correct Answer: E QUESTION 11 Which two differentiate the Cisco Nexus 2148T and Cisco Nexus 2248T Fabric Extenders? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports. B. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports. C. The Cisco Nexus 2148T supports FCoE on all 48 host ports. D. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports. E. The Cisco Nexus 2248T supports 100-Mb and 1-Gb access speed on all 48 host ports.

7 Correct Answer: AE QUESTION 12 Which Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender supports FCoE? A. 2148T B. 2224T C. 2248T D. 2248TP E. 2232PP F. 2232TM Correct Answer: E QUESTION 13 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." Which four Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders support host port channels? (Choose four.) A. 2148T B. 2224T C. 2248T D. 2248TP E. 2232PP F. 2232TM Correct Answer: CDEF

8 QUESTION 14 Which three Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extenders include four 10GE fabric connections to the upstream switch? (Choose three.) A. 2148T B. 2224T C. 2248T D. 2248TP E. 2232PP F. 2232TM Correct Answer: ACD QUESTION 15 What is the licensing grace period allowed on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? A. 30 days B. 60 days C. 90 days D. 120 days E. 150 days F. 180 days Correct Answer: D

9 "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." QUESTION 16 Which two Cisco Nexus 2000-Series Fabric Extenders support connections to both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches and Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Nexus 2248TP B. Cisco Nexus 2248TP-E C. Cisco Nexus 2232PP D. Cisco Nexus 2232TM Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 17 Which IEEE protocol allows Ethernet to operate as a lossless fabric? A. Priority-based Flow Control (802.1Qbb) B. Enhanced Transmission Selection ( 802.1Qaz) C. Bandwidth Demand Circuit (802.1Qax) D. Quantized Congestion Control (802.1Qau) E. Data Center Bridging Exchange (802.1Qab) Correct Answer: A QUESTION 18 Which two are controls between initiators and targets on a Fibre Channel network? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel fencing B. LUN masking

10 C. zoning D. access control list E. port security Correct Answer: BC "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." QUESTION 19 Which command would you use to determine the serial number used to apply for a Product Activation Key? A. MDS-A# show license version B. MDS-A# show running-config include serial-number C. MDS-A# show license serial-number D. MDS-A# show host-id E. MDS-A# show license host-id Correct Answer: E QUESTION 20 Which is the correct port type for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Fibre Channel hub? A. H_Port B. N_Port C. E_Port D. NL_Port E. NP_Port F. FL-Port

11 Correct Answer: D QUESTION 21 Which four are valid options for connecting a host to data center storage? (Choose four.) A. Telnet B. SSH C. iscsi D. Fibre Channel E. NFS F. CIFS Correct Answer: CDEF QUESTION 22 Which two are valid block-based storage protocols? (Choose two.) A. Telnet B. SSH C. iscsi D. Fibre Channel E. NFS F. CIFS Correct Answer: CD

12 QUESTION 23 Which two are valid file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.) A. Telnet B. SSH C. iscsi D. Fibre Channel E. NFS F. CIFS Correct Answer: EF QUESTION 24 Which command would you use to determine whether a Fibre Channel HBA is logged into a Cisco MDS switch? A. MDS-A# show host login B. MDS-A# show host data C. MDS-A# show flogi database D. MDS-A# show host-id E. MDS-A# show host fcid Correct Answer: C QUESTION 25

13 Which command would you use to determine which hosts were Fibre Channel targets? A. MDS-A# show host login B. MDS-A# show host database C. MDS-A# show flogi database D. MDS-A# show host-id E. MDS-A# show fcns database Correct Answer: E QUESTION 26 Which is the maximum number of active zone sets on Cisco MDS 9500 Series Fibre Channel Switches? A. 1 with all licenses B. 2 with Standard Zoning license C. 3 with Enhanced Zoning license D. 4 with Enterprise Zoning license Correct Answer: A QUESTION 27 Which configuration elements that are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.) A. Time and Date B. Management IP address C. Default Zoneset distribution

14 D. Enforce password complexity E. Default switchport mode F Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 28 Which is a structure that provides the equivalent of physical fabric separation in Cisco MDS 9000 Series Fibre Channel Switches? A. VLAN B. VSAN C. Zone D. FLOGI E. LUN Correct Answer: B QUESTION 29 Which would you use to determine what physical ports are assigned to VSAN 10? A. MDS-A# show vsan 10 B. MDS-A# show vsan 10 database C. MDS-A# show vsan 10 ports D. MDS-A# show vsan 10 membership E. MDS-A# show fcns 10 database Correct Answer: D

15 QUESTION 30 Which RAID level is associated with two dedicated parity drives? A. RAID 0 B. RAID 1 C. RAID 3 D. RAID 4 E. RAID 5 F. RAID 6 Correct Answer: F QUESTION 31 Which three are benefits of server virtualization? (Choose three.) A. better server utilization B. increased network visibility C. decreased complexity D. uniform hardware presented to operating systems E. physical resource sharing Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 32

16 Which three are benefits of virtual machines? (Choose three.) A. dedicated LAN NIC B. dedicated SAN HBA C. resource partitioning D. hardware abstraction E. virtual machine isolation Correct Answer: CDE QUESTION 33 Which three are required components of a Cisco Nexus 1000V deployment? (Choose three.) A. Adapter FEX B. Virtual Ethernet Module C. Virtual Fibre Channel Module D. Virtual Supervisor Module E. License key F. VM-Fex Correct Answer: BDE QUESTION 34 Which five Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VMware vnetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose five.) A. private VLANs B. port state migration

17 C. access control lists D. port security E. SPAN F. ERSPAN G. QoS marking Correct Answer: CDEFG QUESTION 35 Which interface provides heartbeat messages between the VSM and VEM? A. control B. management C. packet D. backplane E. SVI Correct Answer: A QUESTION 36 Which commands issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM push the port profile named VMdata to the VMware vcenter server? A. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# no shutdown B. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# push profile

18 C. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# state enabled D. N1000v-VSM(config)# port-profile VMdata N1000v-VSM(config-port-prof)# update profile Correct Answer: C QUESTION 37 Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM validates the connection to the VMware vcenter server? A. N1000v-VSM# show vmware-vim B. N1000v-VSM# show connections vmware C. N1000v-VSM# show svs connections D. N1000v-VSM# show vcenter status Correct Answer: C QUESTION 38 Which command issued on the Cisco Nexus 1000V VSM displays the connected VEMs? A. N1000v-VSM# show vem B. N1000v-VSM# vem status C. N1000v-VSM# show module D. N1000v-VSM# show vem status E. N1000v-VSM# show vem inventory Correct Answer: C

19 QUESTION 39 Which ports on the Cisco UCS 6120XP Fabric Interconnects can operate at either 1 Gb/s or 10Gb/s? A. Ports 1 4 B. None C. Ports 1 6 D. Ports 1 8 E. Ports Correct Answer: D QUESTION 40 Which adapters for Cisco UCS B-Series blade servers and C-Series rack servers allow configuration of virtual interfaces? (Choose four.) A. M71-KR B. M81-KR C. VIC-1240 D. VIC-1280 E. P61E F. P71E G. P81E Correct Answer: BCDG

20 QUESTION 41 Which three are the three primary methods to configure Cisco UCS B-Series systems? (Choose three.) A. SNMP B. XML API C. UCS Manager GUI D. IPMI E. UCS Manager CLI F. CIM-XML Correct Answer: BCE QUESTION 42 Which three are the names of configuration tabs that appear in the Navigation Pane of the UCS Manager GUI? (Choose three.) A. VLAN B. LAN C. VSAN D. Policies E. Equipment F. Global G. Admin Correct Answer: BEG QUESTION 43 Which three items in Cisco Unified Computing System are subject to finite state machine validation? (Choose three.)

21 A. SNMP get B. local login C. server discovery D. firmware downloads E. server boot F. backup jobs Correct Answer: CDF QUESTION 44 Which feature monitors state transitions of components and processes in Cisco Unified Computing System? A. finite state machine B. state monitor C. state manager D. discovery E. logical state arbiter Correct Answer: A QUESTION 45 What are the three basic states of an Ethernet interface on a Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect? (Choose three.) A. unconfigured B. enabled C. disabled D. uplink E. server

22 F. errdisabled Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 46 Which three are components of the Cisco Unified Computing System 2104 I/O Module? (Choose three.) A. multiplexer B. chassis management console C. chassis management switch D. finite state machine E. chassis management controller Correct Answer: ACE QUESTION 47 Which two modes of setup are offered on the initial setup script on a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect? (Choose two.) A. Restore B. Setup C. Console D. Serial E. Management 0 Correct Answer: AB

23 QUESTION 48 Which requirement is unique to service profile templates? A. VLAN B. VSAN C. pooled identities D. vnic E. vhba Correct Answer: C QUESTION 49 Which component of Cisco UCS B-Series is also referred to as a FEX? A. UCS 5108 B. UCS 2104XP C. UCS 6248UP D. UCS 6120 E. UCS MK72-KR Correct Answer: B QUESTION 50 Which statement is true regarding Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster configuration? A. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to two peers for redundancy.

24 B. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to three peers for redundancy. C. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to four peers for redundancy. D. A Cisco Unified Computing System Fabric Interconnect cluster can contain up to six peers for redundancy. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 51 On which layer of the tiered data center architecture do service modules such as FWSM, ACE, and WAAS typically appear? A. access B. services C. aggregation D. transport E. network F. core Correct Answer: C QUESTION 52 What is the principle function of the data center core layer? A. repeater B. high-speed packet switching C. access control D. firewalling and intrusion prevention E. services layer F. QoS marking

25 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 53 Which is a function of the data center access layer? A. repeater B. high-speed packet switching C. access control D. firewalling and Intrusion Prevention E. services layer F. QoS marking Correct Answer: F QUESTION 54 Which vpc connection creates the illusion of a single control plane? A. vpc overlay link B. vpc peer link C. vpc keepalive link D. vpc control link E. vpc management link Correct Answer: B

26 QUESTION 55 Where does the data plane operate on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch? A. unified crossbar fabric B. unified port controller C. supervisor module D. Policy Feature Card E. Connectivity Management Processor Correct Answer: A QUESTION 56 Which is the correct command to install a feature license on Cisco MDS 9100 Series Fibre Channel Switches? A. MDS-A# install license bootflash:license_file.lic B. MDS-A# copy license bootflash:license_file.lic running-config C. MDS-A# install feature bootflash:license_file.lic D. MDS-A# copy feature bootflash:license_file.lic running-config E. MDS-A# update license pool bootflash:license_file.lic Correct Answer: A

27 QUESTION 57 Which is the correct port mapping for a Fibre Channel HBA connected to a Cisco MDS Fibre Channel switch? A. H_Port to N_Port B. N_Port to S_Port C. H_Port to S_Port D. N_Port to F_Port E. H_Port to F_Port Correct Answer: D QUESTION 58 Which is employed by Cisco Nexus 7000 switching products to create multiple logical switches? A. VLAN B. VTP C. VRF D. VDC E. vpc Correct Answer: D QUESTION 59 Which method of virtualization requires significant modification to the guest operating system? A. full virtualization B. paravirtualization

28 C. partial virtualization D. hypervisor virtualization E. host virtualization F. storage virtualization G. LAN virtualization Correct Answer: B QUESTION 60 Which is the default Predictor in the Cisco ACE 4710 Appliance? A. least loaded B. round robin C. hash cookie D. least bandwidth E. least connections Correct Answer: B QUESTION 61 What is the maximum number of Cisco ACE GSS 4400 Series Appliances that can be part of a high-availability mesh? A. 16 B. 8 C. 4 D. 3 E. 12 F. 14

29 Correct Answer: B QUESTION 62 When the typical TCP congestion avoidance process is engaged due to congestion, by what percentage is the congestion window reduced? A. 12% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% E. 100% (send zero window) Correct Answer: C QUESTION 63 Which two methods to configure LACP port channels are valid? (Choose two.) A. channel-group 10 mode active B. port-channel 10 mode active C. channel-group 10 mode on D. channel-group 10 mode passive E. channel-group 10 mode lacp Correct Answer: AD

30 QUESTION 64 Which two switches does Cisco recommend for small and medium-sized organizations to provide a cost-effective solution for the Fibre Channel SAN edge? (Choose two.) A. Cisco MDS 9250i B. Cisco MDS 9506 C. Cisco MDS 9148 D. Cisco MDS 9509 Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 65 Which two switches provide high-performance, multiprotocol, and multiple services for the Fibre Channel SAN core in the data center? (Choose two.) A. Cisco MDS 9124 B. Cisco MDS 9506 C. Cisco MDS 9222i D. Cisco MDS 9710 Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 66 Which four components are parts of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.)

31 A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch B. Cisco ASR 9000 C. Cisco 1000v Switch D. Cisco IOS Software E. Cisco 4500E Switch F. Cisco NX-OS Software G. Cisco 6509-E Switch H. Cisco Fabric Extender Correct Answer: ACFH QUESTION 67 On the Cisco Nexus 5000, which three commands help verify network connectivity? (Choose three.) A. ping B. show interface brief C. show otv D. show vdc membership E. traceroute Correct Answer: ABE QUESTION 68 Which three items are needed to perform the initial setup for a Cisco Data Center device? (Choose three.) A. IP address and network mask B. FTP password C. Active Directory password

32 D. console cable E. device software licenses F. admin password to assign to the device G. SFP+ cables Correct Answer: ADF QUESTION 69 Which settings are used to access the console port on the Cisco Nexus? A. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parity B , 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, No parity C. 9600, 8 data bits, 0 stop bit, No parity D. 9600, 8 data bits, 1 stop bit, Parity Correct Answer: A QUESTION 70 Which three items are control plane protocols? (Choose three.) A. OSPF B. UDLD C. CoPP D. IS-IS E. NAT Correct Answer: ABD

33 QUESTION 71 Which SAN port type allows multihop FCoE between two SAN switches? A. VN B. VE C. VF D. E Correct Answer: B QUESTION 72 For which two reasons should customers deploy FCoE beyond the access layer? (Choose two.) A. higher throughput compared to traditional Fibre Channel B. better security than traditional Fibre Channel C. device consolidation D. FCoE cannot be deployed beyond the access layer. Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 73 Which option describes what VNTags are used for? A. to separate broadcast domains

34 B. to identify and separate virtual interfaces C. to prioritize FCoE traffic D. to extend a Layer 2 domain across a Layer 3 boundary Correct Answer: B QUESTION 74 Which option describes the function of a Cisco Nexus 2000? A. positioned for access layer switching B. to expand the port density of a parent switch C. to provide edge routing D. to host virtual appliances Correct Answer: B QUESTION 75 Refer to the exhibit.

35 After you install and configure a Cisco Nexus 5548, you notice that you cannot ping its default gateway. Assume that your management interface is up and running, and other devices in the same subnet or VLAN can communicate with the default gateway. Which statement describes the problem? A. The subnet of the management port is incorrect. B. The default route is configured incorrectly. C. You are using the incorrect cable. D. You must ping from the management VRF. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 76 Which three components are needed to implement FCoE? (Choose three.)

36 A. FCoE Initialization Protocol B. N_Port virtualization C. N_Port ID virtualization D. converged network adapter E. priority flow control Correct Answer: ADE QUESTION 77 Refer to the exhibit.

37 A network engineer proposes a hierarchical network design for building a company's campus network as shown. What are three advantages of this approach? (Choose three.)

38 A. offers a hierarchy in which all layers share similar roles B. offers a hierarchy in which each layer has a specific role C. offers a modular topology with segregated building blocks D. offers a flat topology with integrated building blocks E. promotes a network virtualization traffic pattern F. creates small fault domains with clear demarcations and isolation Correct Answer: BCF QUESTION 78 Which two options are two functions of the data center core layer? (Choose two.) A. manages access control and policy B. enables routing between VLANs C. creates separate collision domains D. acts as a high speed egress point E. implements security policy F. provides a resilient Layer 3 routed fabric Correct Answer: DF QUESTION 79 Which two options are two functions of the data center access layer? (Choose two.) A. high data transfer rate B. packet filtering C. server connections D. QoS policy enforcement

39 E. high network fault tolerance F. VLAN creation Correct Answer: CF QUESTION 80 A network uses one pair of Layer 3 switches for core and distribution purposes. Which design is this network using? A. collapsed Layer 3 core B. collapsed Layer 2-3 C. collapsed distribution D. collapsed core Correct Answer: D QUESTION 81 A network architecture team is looking for a technology on Cisco Nexus switches that significantly simplifies extending Layer 2 applications across distributed data centers. The team wants the Cisco Data Center Interconnect between sites and without changing or reconfiguring the existing network design. Which technology should be used? A. Multiprotocol Label Switching B. Cisco FabricPath C. virtual switching system D. virtual port channel E. Overlay Transport Virtualization Correct Answer: E

40 QUESTION 82 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is migrating the existing switching infrastructure to a proposed model. Which technology is enabled on the Cisco Nexus switches to support this migration to its future status?

41 A. PAgP B. VSS C. VPC D. FCoE Correct Answer: C QUESTION 83 Which four components are part of the Cisco Data Center Nexus switching offering? (Choose four.) A. Cisco 6000 Series Switch B. Cisco ASR 9000 C. Cisco 1000v Switch D. Cisco IOS Software E. Cisco 4500E Switch F. Cisco NX-OS Software G. Cisco 6509-E Switch H. Cisco Fabric Extender Correct Answer: ACFH

42 QUESTION 84 What is the purpose of Fibre Channel over Ethernet? A. FCoE maps Fibre Channel onto Layer 2 Ethernet, Converging IP, and storage networks. B. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel traffic inside iscsi packets. C. FCoE encapsulates native Fiber Channel traffic inside GRE tunnels. D. Data Center Bridging uses FCoE to transport IP traffic over native Fiber Channel. E. FCoE encapsulates Native Fiber Channel inside IP packets. Correct Answer: A QUESTION 85 What are two purposes of VIFs in Data Center Unified Fabric? (Choose two.) A. VIF can be used to virtually present NICs to the operating system B. VIF is created when interconnecting Catalyst switches to Nexus switches C. FEX modules can be connected to Nexus parent switches through VIF D. VIF can be used to directly attach virtual machines with a Unified Computing System E. VIF creates multiple switch instances inside a VDC Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 86 An administrator has installed two Cisco VIC adapters. The administrator has also configured four virtual network interface cards and two virtual host bus adapters. Using this configuration, how many PCI bus addresses will be presented to the server operating system? A. 2 B. 4

43 C. 6 D. 8 Correct Answer: C QUESTION 87 A network engineer is migrating the server farm from 1 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity to 10 Gb/s Ethernet connectivity. What two Cisco Nexus Fabric Extenders support 10 Gb/s server connectivity? (Choose two.) A. Nexus 2148T B. Nexus 2232PP C. Nexus 2224TP D. Nexus 2248PQ E. Nexus 2248TP Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 88 An engineer is implementing an FCoE enabled port-channel trunk between two Nexus 5000 series switches. There are several existing LACP IP only port channels attached to the two Nexus 5000 switches. Traffic monitoring tools show that FCoE storage traffic appears to be pinned to a single member of the port-channel bundle. What changes are observed in traffic flow when the command port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port is entered? A. FCoE storage traffic balances across all available links. The existing native IP channels become mismatched to their peers and err-disable. B. FCoE storage traffic remains pinned. The existing native IP links forward traffic sub optimally. C. FCoE and IP links balance across all available links. The existing native IP links forward traffic sub optimally. D. Both FCoE and native IP links recalculate and forward traffic optimally across all available links. Correct Answer: B

44 QUESTION 89 A network design team is looking for an I/O consolidation technology that uses Cisco Nexus switches to extend convergence beyond the access layer to a fully converged network. Which option achieves this goal? A. single-hop FCoE B. multihop FCoE C. FabricPath D. IPSAN Correct Answer: B QUESTION 90 A network engineer wants to configure switch ports on Cisco Nexus 2000 and 2200 Fabric Extender switches that are connected to a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. Which three options allow this configuration? (Choose three.) A. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports. B. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 using a console cable, then configure the FEX switch ports. C. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using a console cable, then configure the FEX switch ports. D. Connect to each of the Cisco Nexus 2200/2000 switches using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports. E. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 switch using SSH, then configure the FEX switch ports. F. Connect to a Cisco Nexus 5500 using Telnet, then configure the FEX switch ports. Correct Answer: BEF

45 QUESTION 91 A network engineer wants to enable a FCoE feature on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch. When does that occur? A. after the configuration is saved and rebooted B. after the configuration is saved C. after at least one port is configured to operate in FCoE mode D. after the license is applied Correct Answer: A QUESTION 92 A customer wants to deploy single-hop FCoE in the data center using Cisco Nexus 5500 switches. Which three configuration steps are needed for this deployment? (Choose three.) A. Enable the FCoE feature on the Cisco Nexus B. Configure FCoE VSAN to VLAN mapping. C. Configure the virtual Fibre Channel interface. D. Configure FCoE-NPV mode on the Cisco Nexus E. Configure the storage VDC for FCoE. F. Enable NPV on the Cisco Nexus Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 93

46 Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions can be made based upon the output? (Choose two.) A. the command show flogi database was run B. regular format WWNs are being used C. the command show fncs database was run D. extended format WWNs are being used E. the command show fcns database vsan 1 was run F. registered name format WWNs are being used Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 94

47 {exhibit 1805} Refer to the exhibit. NP uplink ports connected to the core NPIV switch do not come online and are stuck in an initializing state. What is the cause that NP Uplink ports on NPV edge switch are stuck in initializing state? A. The upstream NP Ports and the downstream server F Ports on the NPV edge switch may not be in the same VSA. B. The core switch has not been enabled for NPIV. C. The upstream VSAN ports and the server ports are in full duplex mode. D. Related VSAN identifier is not allowed on Virtual Port Channels toward the edge switch. Correct Answer: B QUESTION 95 What two interface types can be used for switch-to-switch communications? (Choose two.) A. E Port B. F Port C. N Port D. TE Port E. FL Port Correct Answer: AD

48 QUESTION 96 What two protocols can be used to connect to storage arrays on a converged Ethernet/IP network? (Choose two.) A. FCoE B. Fibre Channel C. ISCSI D. InfiniBand E. FabricPath Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 97 An engineer implemented a new VSAN and examined the F-mode trunks connecting an upstream switch. The engineer noticed that the new VSAN is stuck in initializing. Which two options explain why this is happening? (Choose two.) A. The new VSAN has not been configured in the upstream switch. B. A device has not attempted to log in to the new VSAN across the trunk. C. Only the primary VSAN lists as active while subordinate VSANs stay initializing. D. The trunk must be disabled and re-enabled to join the new VSAN. E. Only the secondary VSAN lists as active while primary VSANs stay initializing. Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 98 An administrator connected a new server to a Cisco MDS 9222i on Port FCL/20, but did not capture the world wide node name of the host bus adapter. Which

49 command returns the needed information? A. show flogi database B. show fcns database C. show fcs database D. show wwn status E. show interface fc 1/20 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 99 An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started. Which two items can be configured during this setup process? (Choose two.) A. default switchport interface state B. default zone mode C. default port-channel mode D. default storage VDC E. default port VSAN membership Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 100 A customer requires two separate physical pathways between multiple initiators and multiple targets. Which technology meets this requirement on a single Cisco MDS9148 switch?

50 A. VSANs B. port security C. LUN masking D. zoning Correct Answer: A QUESTION 101 Which two configuration elements are selected during initial setup are unique to Cisco MDS 9000 series Fibre Channel switches? (Choose two.) A. Time and Date B. Management IP address C. Default Zoneset distribution D. Enforce password complexity E. Default switchport mode F Correct Answer: CE QUESTION 102 A UCS administrator has been tasked with creating a new server profile. What two pools can be used to assign Layer 2 interface information? (Choose two.)

51 A. Mac Address B. UUID C. WWN D. IP address E. Server Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 103 An engineer has been asked to configure the Nexus 1000v for a ESXi Cluster. What component of the Nexus 1000v needs to be installed on the hosts? A. VSG B. VEM C. vshield D. DVS Correct Answer: B QUESTION 104 What two options are necessary to complete the installation of the Nexus 1000v Virtual Supervisor Module? (Choose two.) A. VLAN addresses B. NTP server address C. VSM management IP address D. Domain ID E. DNS server address

52 Correct Answer: CD QUESTION 105 What two fields must be filled out to complete the installation of the Nexus 1000v virtual switching environment? (Choose two.) A. Domain ID B. Telnet Server C. Administrator Password D. TFTP Server E. SNMP Community String Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 106 Which two installation models are supported by Cisco virtual interfaces? (Choose two.) A. pass-through switching B. hypervisor controlled C. native switching D. channeled uplink E. store-and-forward switching Correct Answer: AB

53 QUESTION 107 For which task is the hypervisor responsible in a virtualized server environment? A. controls physical hardware resources B. migrates virtual machines via vmotion C. correlates traffic between physical servers D. installs virtual machine operating systems Correct Answer: A QUESTION 108 Which two benefits are achieved by server virtual machines when compared to traditional computing hardware deployments? (Choose two.) A. server isolation B. increased hardware utilization C. reduced server configuration D. decreased bandwidth E. single management interface Correct Answer: AB QUESTION 109 A customer VMware environment contains five hosts running ESXi 5.5. In addition, the environment contains a single vcenter host using standard networking. The customer wants to deploy a Cisco Nexus 1000v solution using Layer 3 mode into the environment. Which three steps must the customer take to achieve this goal? (Choose three.) A. Deploy two VSM modules. B. Create a vmkernel interfaces on each host. C. Create port profiles on the VSM.

54 D. Register the vcenter plugin on the 1000v. E. Deploy five VSM modules. F. Create port profiles on each host. G. Create a vmkernel interface on each VSM module. H. Register the VEM modules with vcenter. Correct Answer: ABC QUESTION 110 What two chassis discovery policy settings will allow for UCS chassis to be connected to a pair of Fabric Interconnect using only two physical connections? (Choose two.) A. 4-link B. 2-link C. 8-link D. 1-link E. Platform-max Correct Answer: BD QUESTION 111 What option automatically performs an inventory and deep discovery of any subsequently attached equipment, without requiring manual intervention? A. UCS Manager B. UCS Server C. CDP Manager D. Enterprise Manager

55 Correct Answer: A QUESTION 112 An engineer is configuring the UCS Fabric Interconnects for network connectivity to the data center LAN and SAN. What two ports types need to be configured to allow traffic to flow properly? (Choose two.) A. Ethernet uplink B. server C. appliance D. Fibre Channel uplink E. Fibre Channel storage Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 113 What option should be verified before configuring UCSM? A. verify physical connection on fabric interconnect B. verify Default Gateway C. verify DNS Server D. verify VLAN Configuration Correct Answer: A

56 QUESTION 114 A network engineer needs to add four native Fibre Channel ports to a pair of UCS fabric interconnects. What two items would be the result of the engineer configuring four universal ports in the fabric interconnect expansion card for storage mode and selecting apply? (Choose two.) A. The fabric interconnect port module reboots. B. The fabric interconnect reboots. C. The ports immediately transition to storage ports. D. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel storage ports. E. The ports are reconfigured as Fibre Channel host adapter ports. Correct Answer: AD QUESTION 115 What two options are performed during initial setup of a UCS Manager? (Choose two.) A. Configuring Nodes B. Configuring Servers C. Configure Routing D. Configure Equipment Policy E. Configure Ports Correct Answer: DE QUESTION 116 What two options are key features for UCSM Manager? (Choose two.) A. Policy Based Management B. Manual Discovery

57 C. Firmware provisioning D. Low Availability E. Supports Fabric-Path Correct Answer: AC QUESTION 117 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer has configured a primary fabric interconnect with this configuration. Which two pieces of information are needed to guarantee high availability and fail over for the secondary fabric interconnect for the cluster? (Choose two.)

58 A. Cisc0123! B C D E F. Fabric-A Correct Answer: AB