Testinside. Exam : Cisco Title : Composite Exam. Version : V3.34. Testinside -help you pass any IT exam!

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1 Exam : Cisco Title : Composite Exam Version : V3.34 Testinside -help you pass any IT exam!

2 Important Note, Please Read Carefully Other TestInside products All TestInside IT Exam Products Our products of Offline Testing Engine Use the offline Testing engine product to practice the questions in an exam environment. Build a foundation of knowledge which will be useful also after passing the exam. TestInside Testing Engine Latest Version We are constantly reviewing our products. New material is added and old material is revised. Free updates are available for 90 days after the purchase. You should check your member zone at TestInside and update 3-4 days before the scheduled exam date. Here is the procedure to get the latest version: 1.Go to 2. Log in the User Center 3.The latest versions of all purchased products are downloadable from here. Just click the links. Feedback If you spot a possible improvement then please let us know. We always interested in improving product quality. Feedback should be send to sales(at)testinside.com. You should include the following: Exam number, version, page number, question number, and your login Account. Our experts will answer your mail promptly. Explanations This product does not include explanations at the moment. If you are interested in providing explanations for this exam, please contact sales(at)testinside.com.

3 1. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the /24 prefix? A. If another path advertises the /24 path and has the default local preference, that path is more preferred. B. The command neighbor send-community is configured on BGP neighbor C. The route is not being advertised to other BGP neighbors. D. Route /24 is learned by an IBGP peer. Answer: B 2. If no metric is specified for the routes being redistributed into IS-IS, what metric value is assigned to the routes? A. 0 B. 1 C. 10 D. 20 Answer: A 3. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.)

4 A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set. B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes. C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values40000, 1000, 255, 1, and D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set. E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8. F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes. Answer: AEF 4. Refer to the exhibit. EIGRP has been configured on all routers in the network. What additional configuration statement should be included on router R4 to advertise a default route to its neighbors?

5 A. R4(config)# ip default-network B. R4(config)# ip route C. R4(config)# ip route D. R4(config-router)# default-information originate Answer: A 5. Into which two types of areas would an area border router (ABR) inject a default route? (Choose two.) A. the autonomous system of a different interior gateway protocol (IGP) B. area 0 C. totally stubby D. NSSA E. stub F. the autonomous system of an exterior gateway protocol (EGP) Answer: CE 6. Which three restrictions apply to OSPF stub areas? (Choose three.) A. No virtual links are allowed. B. The area cannot be a backbone area. C. Redistribution is not allowed unless the packet is changed to a type 7 packet. D. The area has no more than 10 routers.

6 E. No autonomous system border routers are allowed. F. Interarea routes are suppressed. Answer: ABE 7. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the partial configuration that is provided. (Choose two.) A. All the configured neighbors are in autonomous system 100. B. The peer group shortens the IBGP configuration. C. The peer group shortens the EBGP configuration. D. Only the outgoing filters are applied to BGP updates. E. Three AS-path filters are applied to each BGP neighbor. Answer: AB 8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. All six routes will be installed in the routing table. B. Two routes will be installed in the routing table.

7 C. Four routes will be installed in the routing table. D. All the routes were redistributed into BGP from an IGP. E. All the routes were originated by BGP with the network command. Answer: CD 9. Which three IP multicast related statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Multicast addresses through are called globally scoped addresses. They are used to multicast data between organizations and across the Internet. B. The multicast address is a globally scoped address that has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA. C. Multicast addresses through are called limited scope addresses. They are constrained to a local group or organization. D. Multicast addresses and are limited scoped addresses that have been reserved for OSPF. E. Multicast addresses through are used for network protocols on local LAN segments. Because they are always transmitted with a Time to Live (TTL) of 1, they are never forwarded by a router. Answer: ACE 10. Which three IP multicast address related statements are true? (Choose three.) A. Multicast addresses through are always forwarded because they are transmitted with Time to Live (TTL) greater than 1. B. Multicast addresses and are source multicast addresses for OSPF routers. C. Multicast addresses and are reserved link-local addresses used by PIMv2 and IGMPv3. D. Because they would map to overlapping IP multicast MAC addresses, multicast addresses and could not be used together. E. Multicast address has been reserved for the Network Time Protocol (NTP) by the IANA. F. The administratively scoped multicast addresses through are similar in purpose to RFC 1918 private unicast addresses.

8 Answer: CEF 11. What are two rules for compacting IPv6 addresses? (Choose two.) A. The maximum number of times a double colon can replace a 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes is two. B. The leading zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written. C. Every 16-bit segment that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a single colon. D. The trailing zeroes in any 16-bit segment do not have to be written. E. Any single, continuous string of one or more 16-bit segments that consists of all zeroes can be represented with a double colon. F. Two zeroes in the middle of any 16-bit segment do not have to be written. Answer: BE 12. What is the difference between the IPv6 addresses ::/0 and ::/128? A. ::/0 is the unspecified address, and ::/128 is the multicast address. B. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the anycast address. C. ::/0 is the unicast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address. D. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the multicast address. E. ::/0 is the default route, and ::/128 is the unspecified address. F. ::/0 is the anycast address, and ::/128 is the default address. Answer: E 13. Which three IP multicast group concepts are true? (Choose three.) A. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, all members of the multicast group will receive it. B. If a packet is sent to a multicast group address, the multicast frame contains the source multicast address. C. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data. D. A router does not have to be a member of a multicast group to send to the group. E. A router must be a member of a multicast group to receive multicast data. F. A router must be a member of a multicast group to send to the group.

9 Answer: ADE 14. Which three WLAN statements are true? (Choose three.) A. A lightweight AP receives control and configuration from a WLAN controller to which it is associated. B. A WLAN client that is operating in half-duplex mode will delay all clients in that WLAN. C. Ad hoc mode allows mobile clients to connect directly without an intermediate AP. D. Another term for infrastructure mode is independent service set (IBSS). E. The Aironet 1230 access point is an example of an access point that operates solely as a lightweight access point. F. WLANs are designed to share the medium and can easily handle an increased demand of channel contention. Answer: ABC 15. Which three statements are true about the voice VLAN feature on a Catalyst 2950 switch? (Choose three.) A. The CoS value is trusted for 802.1p or 802.1q tagged traffic. B. The voice VLAN feature is disabled by default. C. The IP phone accepts the priority of all tagged and untagged traffic and sets the CoS value to 4. D. When the voice VLAN feature is enabled, all untagged traffic is sent according to the default CoS priority of the port. E. PortFast is automatically disabled when a voice VLAN is configured. F. The default CoS value for incoming traffic is set to 0. Answer: BDF 16. Which two Aironet enterprise solution statements are true? (Choose two.) A. A Cisco Aironet AP handles the transmission of beacon frames and also handles responses to probe-request frames from clients. B. A Cisco Aironet solution includes intelligent Cisco Aironet access points (APs) and Cisco Catalyst switches. C. In the Cisco Aironet solution, each AP is locally configured by the use of either a web interface or the

10 command line interface. D. The Cisco Aironet AP handles real-time portions of the LWAPP protocol, and the WLAN controller handles those items which are not time sensitive. E. Virtual MAC architecture allows the splitting of the protocol between the Cisco Aironet AP and a LAN switch. Answer: AD 17. Refer to the exhibit. The command spanning-tree guard root is configured on interface Gi0/0 on both switch S2 and S5. The global configuration command spanning-tree uplinkfast has been configured on both switch S2 and S5. The link between switch S4 and S5 fails. Will Host A be able to reach Host B? A. Yes. Traffic can pass either from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1, or, from switch S6 to S5 to S2 to S1. B. No. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end at interface Gi 0/0. C. No. Traffic will loop back and forth between switch S5 and S2. D. Yes. Traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 to S1. E. No. Traffic will either pass from switch S6 to S5 and dead-end, or traffic will pass from switch S6 to S3 to S2 and dead-end. Answer: D 18. Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Client Adapter has been installed and configured through the ADU on the PC. The Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) has been enabled during the installation and the icon appears in the system tray area in the lower right of the desktop. What is the significance of the icon?

11 A. It indicates that the radio of the client adapter is disabled. B. It indicates that the client adapter is not associated to an access point or another client. C. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, but the user is not EAP authenticated. D. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is excellent or good. E. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is fair. F. It indicates that the client adapter is associated to an access point or another client, that the user is authenticated if the client adapter is configured for EAP authentication, and that the signal strength is poor. Answer: E 19. A client is searching for an access point (AP). What is the correct process order that the client and access point go through to create a connection? A. probe request/response, authentication request/response, association request/response B. association request/response, authentication request/response, probe request/response C. probe request/response, association request/response, authentication request/response D. association request/response, probe request/response, authentication request/response Answer: C 20. Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.) A. Voice VLANs are only used when connecting an IP phone and a host to distinct switch ports. B. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs will always trust the CoS that is received from IP phones. C. Access ports that are configured with voice VLANs may or may not override the CoS value that is

12 received from an IP phone. D. Voice VLANs are configured using the switchport voice vlan vlan-id interface configuration command. E. Voice VLANs provide a trunking interface between an IP phone and an access port on a switch to allow traffic from multiple devices that are connected to the port. F. Enabling Voice VLAN on a switch port will automatically configure the port to trust the incoming CoS markings. Answer: CE 21. Which two statements about voice VLANs are correct? (Choose two.) A. Voice VLANs eliminate the need for QoS configuration. B. Voice VLANs are used on trunk links to eliminate the need for QoS CoS markings. C. Voice VLANs are mainly used to reduce the number of access switch ports that are used in the network. D. Voice VLANs can be configured to forward existing CoS priorities or override them. E. Voice VLANs are mainly used between access layer switches and distribution layer switches. F. Voice VLANs can be configured on Layer 2 ports only. Answer: DE 22. Refer to the exhibit. Which Catalyst switch interface command would be used to cause the switch to instruct the phone to override the incoming CoS from the PC before forwarding the packet to the switch? A. switchport priority extend trust B. switchport priority extend cos 2 C. switchport priority extend cos 11 D. mls qos cos 2 E. mls qos cos 2 override Answer: D

13 23. A Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapter CB21AG is inserted into a PC cardbus slot. Both the green status LED and the amber activity LED are blinking slowly. What is the condition of the adapter? A. The adapter is not receiving power. B. The adapter is in power save mode. C. The adapter is scanning for the wireless network for which it is configured. D. The adapter is associated to an access point or another client. E. The adapter is transmitting or receiving data while associated to an access point or another client. Answer: B 24. On an Aironet card, LED 0 and LED 1 are blinking alternately. What does this indicate? A. The Aironet card is in power save mode. B. The Aironet card is looking for a network association. C. The Aironet card is joined to a network, but there is no network activity. D. The Aironet card is joined to a network, and there is network activity. Answer: C 25. Refer to the exhibit. The signal transmitted from the AP is reflected off a wall resulting in multipath interference at the client end. Which statement is true? A. If signal 1 is in phase with signal 2, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN. B. If signal 2 is close to 360 degrees out of phase with signal 1, the result is essentially zero signal or a dead spot in the WLAN. C. Multipath interference is solved by using dual antennas. D. Multipath interference is less of an issue when using a DSSS technology because multipath is frequency

14 selective. E. The transmitted signal from the AP arrives at the client at slightly different times resulting in phase shifting. Answer: A 26. Which two WLAN client utility statements are true? (Choose two.) A. In a Windows XP environment, a client adapter can only be configured and managed with the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager. B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to enable or disable the adapter radio and to configure LEAP authentication with dynamic WEP. C. The Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can both be enabled at the same time to setup WLAN client cards. D. The Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be configured to display the Aironet System Tray Utility (ASTU) icon in the Windows system tray. Answer: BC 27. Which two statements about HSRP priority are true? (Choose two.) A. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router. B. The default priority of a router is zero (0). C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router. D. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used. E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router. Answer: CD 28. Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent an ARP message to the default gateway IP address Which statement is true?

15 A. Because of the invalid timers that are configured, DSw1 will not reply. B. DSw1 will reply with the IP address of the next AVF. C. DSw1 will reply with the MAC address of the next AVF. D. Because of the invalid timers that are configured, DSw2 will not reply. E. DSw2 will reply with the IP address of the next AVF. F. DSw2 will reply with the MAC address of the next AVF. Answer: B 29. Which two statements about a wireless repeater topology are true? (Choose two.) A. A wireless repeater is an access point that is not connected to the wired LAN. B. The repeater feature is only available in lightweight access point topologies. C. The SSID of the root access point must be configured on the repeater access point. D. This topology requires a percent overlap between a wired access point and the wireless repeater. E. This topology requires a percent overlap between a wired access point and the wireless repeater. F. To avoid interference, the repeater access point must use a different channel from what the root access point uses.

16 Answer: AB 30. Refer to the exhibit. The wireless user is moving from right to left towards AP2. What are three reasons that the wireless client would initiate roaming? (Choose three.) A. The client has missed too many beacons from AP1. B. The client has received too many beacons from AP2. C. The client data rate from AP1 has been reduced. D. The client data rate from AP2 has been increased. E. The maximum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded. F. The minimum data retry count from AP1 is exceeded. Answer: ACF 31. Which two statements about WLAN components are true? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Aironet autonomous access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network. B. Cisco Aironet lightweight access points cannot be supported by the Cisco Unified Wireless Network. C. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the Wireless Domain Services (WDS).

17 D. In the autonomous access point solution, control is provided by the WLAN controller. E. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Solution Engine (WLSE). F. In the lightweight access point solution, WLAN management is provided by the WLAN Control System (WCS). Answer: CE 32. Which two statements about voice traffic are true? (Choose two.) A. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 bytes. B. Voice packets are typically around 600 to 1200 bytes. C. Voice packets are typically around 60 to 120 KB. D. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 1 percent and delay should be no more than 150 ms. E. For voice quality, packet loss should be less than 2 percent and delay should be no more than 250 ms. F. A typical voice call requires 17 kbps to 106 kbps of guaranteed priority bandwidth plus an additional 15 kbps per call for voice-control traffic. Answer: AB 33. Refer to the exhibit. What radio button option on the Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) Security tab includes the option of Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) and Extensible Authentication Protocol-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling?

18 A. WPA/WPA2/CCKM B. WPA/WPA2 Passphrase C x D. Pre-Shared Key (Static WEP) Answer: B 34. Which three components are included in the Cisco autonomous WLAN solution? (Choose three.) A. Wireless LAN Solution Engine (WLSE) B. Access Control Server (ACS) C. Wireless Control System (WCS) D. Wireless Services Module (WiSM) E. Wireless Domain Services (WDS) F. Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP) Answer: ABC 35. When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 switch, which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk

19 link? A. no VLANs B. all VLANs C. only VLANs 1-64 D. only the VLANs that are specified when creating the trunk Answer: A 36. Which set of statements describes the correct order and process of a wireless client associating with a wireless access point? A. 1. Client sends probe request. 2. Access point sends probe response. 3. Client initiates association. 4. Access point accepts association. 5. Access point adds client MAC address to association table. B. 1. Client sends probe request. 2. Access point sends probe response. 3. Client initiates association. 4. Access point accepts association. 5. Client adds access point MAC address to association table. C. 1. Client sends probe request. 2. Access point sends probe response. 3. Access point initiates association. 4. Client accepts association. 5. Access point adds client MAC address to association table. D. 1. Access point sends probe request. 2. Client sends probe response. 3. Client initiates association. 4. Access point accepts association. 5. Access point adds client MAC address to association table. E. 1. Access point sends probe request.

20 2. Client sends probe response. 3. Client initiates association. 4. Access point accepts association. 5. Client adds access point MAC address to association table. Answer: A 37. Which two features or capabilities are valid options for both an Autonomous and a Lightweight WLAN solution? (Choose two) A. use of a Cisco Wireless Location Appliance for location tracking B. use of Cisco Secure Access Control Server (ACS) for security C. Cisco Wireless Control System (WCS) for management D. PoE capability E. Cisco IOS software for configuration Answer: AB 38. Which two statements correctly describe the association process between a lightweight access point and a WLAN controller? (Choose two.) A. In order to associate in Layer 3 mode, the access point must have been preconfigured with an IP address. B. An access point first searches for a controller in LWAPP Layer 2 mode. If the search is not successful, the access point then attempts to locate a controller in LWAPP Layer 3 mode. C. Once an access point associates with a controller in LWAPP Layer 3 mode, it receives an IP address from the controller. D. An access point will search for a controller using a broadcast address if using LWAPP Layer 2 mode and a unicast address if using LWAPP Layer 3 mode. E. If multiple wireless controllers are detected by an access point, the controller with the fewest associated access points is chosen to associate with. Answer: AB 39. Refer to the exhibit. What is the sequence of events when a VoIP call is placed from IP phone P1 to IP

21 phone P2? A. RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM. CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2. B. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM. CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2. RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. C. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM. RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2. D. IP phone P1 alerts the CCM of off-hook state. CCM instructs IP phone P1 to provide dialtone. IP phone P1 passes digits to CCM. CCM routes call to PSTN or IP phone P2.

22 RTP traffic is exchanged between IP phone P1 and IP phone P2. Answer: A 40. What are three examples of call control signaling? (Choose three.) A. MGCP B. RTP C. G.711 D. G.729 E. H.323 F. SIP Answer: ABC 41. Refer to the exhibit. What type of message will be used by the lightweight access point (LAP) in an attempt to locate the wireless LAN controller (WLC)? A. The LAP will send out a Layer 2 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network. B. The LAP will send out a Layer 3 LWAPP discovery request to the WLC on the wireless network. C. The LAP will send out a DHCP request. In return, the DHCP server will provide the IP addresses for the LAP and the WLC. D. The LAP will send out a DNS request. In return, the DNS server will provide the WLC domain name. Answer: B 42. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the required switch configurations to support a voice VLAN? (Choose two.)

23 A. CDP must be disabled on the switch port to prevent interference between CDP messages and voice traffic. B. CDP must be enabled on the switch port to allow configuration information to be passed to the IP phone. C. Static secure MAC addresses should be configured on voice vlan ports to prevent access by devices other than IP phones. D. Portfast must be enabled on the switch port. E x authentication cannot be configured on a port configured for a voice vlan. F. Port security cannot be configured on a port that is configured for a voice vlan. Answer: AB 43. For what purpose is the command config network webmode enable used? A. to allow HTTPS access to the WLAN controller B. to allow HTTP access to the WLAN controller C. to allow SSH access to the CLI of the WLAN controller D. to allow SSL access to the CLI of the WLAN controller Answer: A 44. Refer to the exhibit. Assume that Switch_A is active for the standby group and the standby device has only the default HSRP configuration. What conclusion is valid? A. If port Fa1/1 on Switch_A goes down, the standby device will take over as active. B. If the current standby device were to have the higher priority value, it would take over the role of active for the HSRP group.

24 C. If port Fa1/1 on Switch_A goes down, the new priority value for the switch would be 190. D. If Switch_A had the highest priority number, it would not take over as active router. Answer: A 45. Which statement is true about the Lightweight Access Point Protocol (LWAPP)? A. The control traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with the LWAPP. B. Data traffic between the client and the access point is encapsulated with LWAPP. C. Authentication, security, and mobility are handled by the access point. D. Real-time frame exchange is accomplished within the access point. Answer: A 46. Refer to the exhibit. Based upon the information that is given, how will voice traffic from the phone and data traffic from the PC be handled by SW_1? A. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice and data traffic that comes into the switch port. B. The switch port will perform marking for the ingress voice and data traffic by using the default CoS value at the switch port. C. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress voice traffic. Data traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value. D. The switch port will trust the CoS value of the ingress data traffic. Voice traffic will be marked at the switch port with the default CoS value. Answer: A

25 47. Refer to the exhibit. GLBP has been configured on the network. When the interface serial0/0/1 on router R1 goes down, how is the traffic coming from Host1 handled? A. The traffic coming from Host1 and Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption. B. The traffic coming from Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption. Host1 sends an ARP request to resolve the MAC address for the new virtual gateway. C. The traffic coming from both hosts is temporarily interrupted while the switchover to make R2 active occurs. D. The traffic coming from Host2 is forwarded through router R2 with no disruption. The traffic from Host1 is dropped due to the disruption of the load balancing feature configured for the glbp group. Answer: A 48. Refer to the exhibit. This network is running IS-IS. Router RTC is inside Cloud#1. From the output on RTD, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

26 A. The SNPA for RTE is the source data link address that is used to transmit frames to RTD. B. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC. C. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be IP datagrams that are encapsulated by CLNS. D. IP routing updates between RTC and RTD will be CLNS datagrams that are encapsulated by HDLC. E. Because it is running IS-IS in IP-only mode, RTD will not transmit CLNS packets. F. The NET for RTE will be b7.fd5f.00. Answer: AB 49. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

27 A. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the ISP router. B. The output was generated by entering the show ip bgp command on the SanJose1 router. C. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 50 command. D. The serial 0/0/1 interface on the ISP router has been configured with the set metric 75 command. E. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose1 because of the lower MED value of SanJose1. F. When traffic is sent from the ISP to autonomous system 64512, the traffic will be forwarded to SanJose2 because of the higher MED value of SanJose2. Answer: AD

28 50. When the passive-interface command is used on a router, which two routing protocols will continue to receive routing updates on an interface that is configured as passive? (Choose two.) A. OSPF B. RIP C. RIPv2 D. EIGRP Answer: AD 51. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 are running EIGRP and have converged. On the basis of the information that is presented, which statement is true? A. All outgoing routing updates from router R1 to router R2 will be suppressed, but the inbound updates will continue to be received. B. All incoming routing updates from R2 will be suppressed, but the outgoing updates will continue to be sent. C. Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on R1 will be stopped because of the passive-interface

29 Serial0/0 configuration statement. D. Both outgoing and incoming routing updates on R1 will be permitted because the distribute-list 20 out Serial0/0 command cannot be used with association with the outgoing interface. Answer: A 52. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration that is provided, how would the BGP updates that come from router R1 be replicated inside autonomous system 65200? A. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent to routers R3 and R4. Routers R3 and R4 will then forward those BGP updates to router R5. B. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will not be sent to routers R3 and R4. C. All BGP updates that are received on router R2 will be sent directly to router R5. D. None of the BGP updates that are received on router R2 will ever be received by router R5. Answer: A

30 53. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration is reflected in the output that is displayed in the exhibit? A. neighbor route-map cisco in! access-list 66 permit ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90 B. neighbor route-map cisco out! access-list 66 permit ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90 C. neighbor route-map cisco out! access-list 66 permit ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set metric 90 D. neighbor route-map cisco in

31 ! access-list 66 permit ! route-map cisco permit 10 match ip address 66 set local-preference 90 Answer: A 54. Refer to the exhibit. Router RT-1 and router RT-2 both advertise network /16 to router RT-3 via internal BGP. What is the reason that router RT-3 chose router RT-1 as its best path to network /16. A. It advertises the best AS-path. B. It advertises the best origin code. C. It advertises the best MED.

32 D. It advertises the best local preference. E. It has a better router ID. F. It advertises a lower autonomous system. Answer: B 55. What technique should be used on BGP edge routers to prevent a multi-homed autonomous system from becoming a transit system? A. Advertise with a high MED value all networks that are discovered via external BGP. B. Remove the AS-Path information on all routes in the BGP table prior to advertising externally. C. Only advertise networks externally if they have been discovered via internal BGP. D. Use an outgoing distribution list to filter all networks not originating from inside the autonomous system. E. Set the no-export community attribute on all networks that are advertised externally. F. Set the origin code to incomplete for all networks that are discovered via external BGP. Answer: B 56. Which statement is true about Protocol Independent Multicast Dense Mode (PIM DM) multicast routing? A. PIM DM supports shared distribution trees. B. If a port is pruned, the administrator must re-enable the port to support multicast traffic. C. The (S,G) state exists in every router, regardless of the presence of an RPF interface. D. Flooding of traffic only occurs in the beginning stages of routing. Afterwards, all necessary ports are pruned and multicast traffic is not sent across those interfaces. Answer: D 57. Refer to the exhibit and the partial configuration on routers R1 and R2. Hot Standby Routing Protocol (HSRP) is configured on the network to provide network redundancy for the IP traffic. The network administrator noticed that R2 does not become active when the R1 serial0 interface goes down. What should be changed in the configuration to fix the problem?

33 A. R2 should be configured with a HSRP virtual address. B. R2 should be configured with a standby priority of 100. C. The Serial0 interface on router R2 should be configured with a decrement value of 20. D. The Serial0 interface on router R1 should be configured with a decrement value of 20. Answer: A 58. How is the configuration of a totally stubby area different from that of a stub area? A. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ABR. B. The totally stubby area requires the totally stubby command on the ABR. C. The no-summary command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area. D. The totally stubby command should be included on all routers within the totally stubby area. E. The totally stubby area requires the no-summary command on the ASBR. Answer: B 59. Refer to the exhibit. Which one statement is true?

34 A. Traffic from the /16 network will be blocked by the ACL. B. The /8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the /8 network is missing from Router B. C. The /8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B. D. Users on the /8 network can successfully ping users on the /24 network, but users on the /24 cannot successfully ping users on the /8 network. E. Router B will not advertise the /8 network because it is blocked by the ACL. Answer: A 60. Which three of the following are features of the IS-IS routing protocol? (Choose three) A. link-state routing protocol B. inefficient use of bandwidth not appropriate for an ISP C. supports VLSM D. uses spanning tree algorithm for fast convergence E. supports two routing levels within an autonomous system F. operation is similar to BGP Answer: ACD 61. What is the MAC address that would be derived from the multicast address ?

35 A e-7f B f C e-7f D ef-ff E ef-ff Answer: D 62. Which two routing protocols require a metric to be configured when redistributing routes from other protocols? (Choose two.) A. RIP B. OSPF C. EIGRP D. IS-IS E. BGP Answer: AE 63. By default, which statement is correct regarding the redistribution of routes from other routing protocols into OSPF? A. They will appear in the OSPF routing table as type E1 routes. B. They will appear in the OSPF routing table as type E2 routes. C. Summarized routes are not accepted. D. All imported routes will be automatically summarized when possible. E. Only routes with lower administrative distances will be imported. Answer: A 64. What are the two effects of the IP multicast global configuration command ip pim send-rp-announce loopback0 scope 31 group-list 5 issued on multicast router RTA? (Choose two.) A. RTA will drop all RP announcements it receives if the TTL field is greater than 31. B. RTA will forward RP announcements provided they are within the scope of 31. C. RTA will originate RP announcements with TTL set to 31.

36 D. RTA will forward RP announcements from any neighbor router with a source IP address that matches access-list 5. E. RTA will originate RP announcements for multicast groups that match access-list 5. Answer: CD 65. Refer to the exhibit. It is desired to set up a BGP neighbor relationship between routers R1 and R4. BGP packets between them could travel through R2 or R3. What is the simplest configuration that will allow for failover? A. Configure BGP neighbor relationships between all interfaces on R1 and R4. B. Install a direct connection between R1 and R4. C. Configure loopback interfaces on R1 and R4 to provide the update source address for BGP packets. D. Configure only one neighbor relationship between R1's interface and R4's interface. Answer: A 66. Refer to the exhibit. The neighbor weight 200 BGP configuration command has been configured on router A. What will be the result of this configuration?

37 A. Router A will prefer the path through router B for network B. Router A will prefer the path through router C for network C. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router B for networks advertised by router A. D. Packets from router D will prefer the path through router C for networks advertised by router A. Answer: C 67. Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.) A. bursty B. greedy C. drop sensitive D. delay sensitive E. UDP priority F. TCP retransmits Answer: ABE 68. Which three characteristics are true about voice traffic in the campus network? (Choose three.) A. TCP retransmits B. benign C. greedy D. drop sensitive

38 E. smooth F. delay insensitive Answer: BCD 69. Which two statements are true about voice VLANs? (Choose two.) A. Voice VLANs allow IP phones to be moved around without worrying about subnets. B. Voice VLANs allow voice and data packets to be logically combined. C. Implementing voice VLANs causes network administrators to change their existing IP topology. D. Using voice VLANs makes it easier for network administrators to identify and troubleshoot network problems. E. Voice VLANs are available on all Cisco switches. Answer: AB 70. Which two statements are true about trust boundaries? (Choose two.) A. Classifying and marking traffic should be done as close to the traffic source as possible. B. Classifying and marking traffic should be done at the distribution layer. C. Traffic is classified and marked as it travels through the network. D. If untrusted traffic enters a switch, it can be marked with a new QoS value appropriate for the policy in place. E. The trust boundary moves depending on the type of traffic entering the network. Answer: AE 71. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration provided, how are the Hello packets sent by R2 handled by R5 in OSPF area 5?

39 A. The Hello packets will be exchanged and adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5. B. The Hello packets will be exchanged but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors only. C. The Hello packets will be dropped and no adjacency will be established between routers R2 and R5. D. The Hello packets will be dropped but the routers R2 and R5 will become neighbors. Answer: A 72. Which statement is true about OSPF Network LSAs? A. They are originated by every router in the OPSF network. They include all routers on the link, interfaces, the cost of the link, and any known neighbor on the link. B. They are originated by the DR on every multi-access network. They include all attached routers including the DR itself. C. They are originated by Area Border Routers and are sent into a single area to advertise destinations outside that area. D. They are originated by Area Border Router and are sent into a single area to advertise an Autonomous System Border Router. Answer: D

40 73. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is configured on all routers in the network. Area 5 is configured as an NSSA area. The RIPv2 routes are redistributed into the OSPF domain on router R5. What two types of LSAs will be originated by router R5? (Choose two.) A. type 1 Router LSA B. type 2 Network LSA C. type 3 Network Summary LSA D. type 4 ASBR Summary LSA E. type 5 AS External LSA F. type 7 NSSA External LSA Answer: AB 74. Refer to the exhibit. The lightweight wireless architecture splits the processing of the data and management protocols and the access point functionality between the access point and the WLAN controller using split MAC approach. Which three functionalities are handled by the WLAN controller? (Choose three.) A. the transmission of beacon frames B. the portions of the protocol that have real-time requirements C. the response to Probe Request frames from clients

41 D authentication E association and re-association (mobility) F frame translation and bridging Answer: ABF 75. Refer to the exhibit. Three different wireless groups of users are allowed to gain access to the wireless LAN. What type of security policy should be enforced for the users in the Guest group? A. static WEP and MAC authentication B. LEAP authentication C. primary SSID with open or no WEP authentication D. open authentication with WEP plus MAC authentication Answer: D 76. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the repeater access point that is deployed in this wireless network? A. The repeater access point should use a different SSID than the SSID configured on the parent access point.

42 B. The repeater access point should use a different WEP encryption method than the WEP encryption that is enabled on the parent access point. C. The repeater access point reduces the throughput in half because it receives and then re-transmits each packet on the same channel. D. The repeater access point requires a 10 percent channel overlap with channel of the root access point. Answer: D 77. What are two differences between the Autonomous WLAN solution and the Lightweight WLAN solution? (Choose two.) A. TACACS+ can only be used for authentication with the Cisco Lightweight WLAN solution. B. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Autonomous WLAN Solution. C. CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine can be used for management with the Lightweight WLAN Solution. D. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Lightweight WLAN solution. E. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is used to configure the access points in the Autonomous WLAN solution. Answer: BE 78. How are VRRP messages exchanged between routers sharing a common LAN segment? A. VRRP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives. B. Unicast IP addresses with UDP port ID 112. C. Destination IP address with IP Protocol ID 112. D. VRRP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code 0x112. Answer: D 79. Refer to the exhibit. What does the output of the debug command indicate on VRRP router RTA?

43 A. VRRP is not active on RTA. B. RTB does not have VRRP active. C. RTA does not have VRRP preempt active. D. RTB has a different IP address coded for VRRP group 1 than RTA. E. RTB has the same IP address coded on its Ethernet interface as RTA. Answer: E 80. Which method enables GLBP to forward traffic from a LAN segment via multiple routers simultaneously? A. Clients need to have different default gateway IP addresses coded. B. Separate GLBP groups are coded on the routers. C. The AVG assigns different virtual MAC addresses. D. Multiple AVG designated routers respond to ARP requests. E. Proxy ARP allows multiple routers to respond to ARP requests from clients. Answer: D

44 81. How are GLBP messages exchanged between routers that share a common LAN segment? A. GLBP messages are multicast to UDP port ID B. GLBP messages are directly encapsulated into the Ethernet data field using type code C. GLBP relies on TCP to open a connection and to maintain that connection using TCP keepalives. D. Routers inform clients with GLBP messages and use ARP messages to exchange information about first-hop redundancy. Answer: B 82. Which method used by GLBP allows the AVG to prefer one GLBP router as the AVF over other GLBP routers until its tracked interface goes down, when another router might be more preferred? A. no glbp group load-balancing B. glbp group load-balancing host-dependent C. glbp group load-balancing round-robin D. glbp group load-balancing weighted Answer: D 83. Which routing protocol will continue to receive and process routing updates from neighbors after the passive-interface router configuration command is entered? A. EIGRP B. RIP C. OSPF D. IS-IS Answer: D 84. What are three possible router states of HSRP routers on a LAN? (Choose three.) A. standby B. established C. active D. idle E. backup

45 F. initial Answer: ACD 85. In a customer's network, VLAN Trunking Protocol (VTP) is running with a domain named main1. VLANs 1,2,3,4,5,10,20 are active on the network. Suddenly the whole network goes down. No traffic is being passed on VLANs 2,3,4,5,10,20, however traffic passes on VLAN 1 and indicates all switches are operational. Right before the network problem occurred, a switch named TEST1 was added to the network. What three conditions must exist on TEST1 to cause this network outage? (Choose three.) A. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with a different domain name. B. TEST1 is not configured to participate in VTP. C. TEST1 is configured as a VTP server with the domain name main1. D. TEST1 has a lower VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision. E. TEST1 has a higher VTP configuration revision than the current VTP revision. F. TEST1 is configured with only VLAN1. Answer: CDF 86. Given the following partial configuration for Router A: interface serial 0 ip address encapsulation frame-relay ip ospf network point-to-multipoint router ospf 7 network area 0 Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.) A. DR/BDR elections do not take place. B. The router is restricted to a hub and spoke topology. C. The area 0 NBMA cloud is configured as more than one subnet. D. OSPF neighbor statements are not necessary. Answer: AF

46 87. Which command displays the number of times that the OSPF Shortest Path First (SPF) algorithm has been executed? A. show ip protocol B. show ip ospf interface C. show ip ospf D. show ip ospf database Answer: D 88. Which two methods advertise internal networks to external ISPs via BGP? (Choose two.) A. using aggregate routes B. disabling synchronization C. forcing the next-hop address D. defining routes via the network statement Answer: AB 89. What is a characteristic of a static VLAN membership assignment? A. VMPS server lookup B. easy to configure C. ease of adds, moves, and changes D. based on MAC address of the connected device Answer: D 90. Which protocol enables a group of routers to form a single virtual router and use the real IP address of a router as the gateway address? A. Proxy ARP B. HSRP C. IRDP D. VRRP E. GLBP Answer: C

47 91. When a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link using a serial DTE interface, how is the interface clock rate determined? A. It is supplied by the CSU/DSU. B. It is supplied by the far end router. C. It is determined by the clock rate command. D. It is supplied by the Layer 1 bit stream timing. Answer: C 92. A network administrator assigns a multicast address of to an application running on a device with an Ethernet MAC address of 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80. Which Layer 2 multicast address will this device use? A e.7F B. 01.b2.7d.05.f1.80 C. 01.b2.7d.0a D e.05.f1.80 E. ff.ff.ff.ff.ff.ff Answer: B 93. For the accompanying router output, which of the following statements describes the state that neighbor is in? A. The router will not accept connections from the peer.

48 B. The router has sent out an active TCP connection request to the peer. C. The router is listening on its server port for connection requests from the peer. D. BGP can exchange routing information in this state. Answer: B 94. Above is the output from show ip bgp neighbors command. What is line 21 stating about the BGP connection? A. the number of consecutive TCP connections to the specified remote neighbor B. the number of times the router has established a TCP connection C. the number of total TCP connections that the router has D. the number of neighbors that the router has Answer: C 95. Given the accompanying output, which additional command is needed to redistribute IGRP into EIGRP? Router eigrp 123

49 Network No auto-summary! Router igrp 123 Network Network A. Under the router igrp mode add redistribute eigrp 123 B. Under the router eigrp mode add redistribute igrp 123 C. Under the router eigrp mode add redistribute igrp 123 subnets D. None, EIGRP and IGRP are automatically redistributed in this instance. Answer: A 96. Given the network diagram, which address would successfully summarize only the networks seen?

50 A /24 B /20 C /21 D /20 E /21 F. These networks cannot be summarized. Answer: D 97. Given the network diagram, which routers currently make up the IS-IS backbone? A. R3,R4,R6 B. R3,R4,R5,R6 C. R2,R3,R6,R7 D. R2,R3,R4,R6,R7 E. R1 through R8

51 Answer: C 98. Which statement is true regarding the configuration of ISL trunks? A. All Catalyst switches support ISL trunking. B. A Catalyst switch will report giants if one side is configured for ISL while the other side is not. C. ISL trunking requires that native VLANs match. D. A Catalyst switch cannot have ISL and IEEE 802.1q trunks enabled. Answer: D 99. The Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers are OSPF neighbors over the Ethernet 0/0 connection. Based on the show ip ospf neighbor output from the Dev-1 and Dev-3 routers, which statement is true? A. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority. B. Dev-1 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID. C. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a higher OSPF router priority. D. Dev-3 is the DR because it has a lower OSPF router ID. E. Both Dev-1 and Dev-3 are using the default OSPF router priority. Answer: B 100. When other routing protocol routes are being redistributed into OSPF, what is one of the most common problems? A. missing the tag option in the redistribute command. B. missing the subnet option in the redistribute command. C. missing the metric option in the redistribute command.

52 D. misconfiguring the metric-type option in the redistribute command to type-1. E. misconfiguring the metric-type option in the redistribute command to type-2. Answer: D 101. Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.) A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long. B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long. C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field. D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field. E. IPv6 routers send RA messages. F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field. Answer: ACF 102. Why should ibgp sessions be fully meshed within a Transit AS? A. BGP requires redundant TCP sessions between ibgp peers. B. A full mesh allows for optimal routing within the Transit AS. C. Routes learned via ibgp are never propagated to other ebgp peers. D. Routes learned via ibgp are never propagated to other ibgp peers. E. Routes learned via ebgp are never propagated to other ibgp peers. Answer: B 103. The network is not being propagated throughout the network. Observe the BGP configuration commands from the advertising router. What is the reason the route is not being advertised? router bgp neighbor remote-as neighbor remote-as network network !

53 ip route null0 A. The network statement is missing mask B. The network statement is missing mask C. The network statement is missing mask D. The network statement is missing mask E. The auto-summary configuration is missing. Answer: B 104. What are the basic configuration steps to enable IS-IS? A. Configure the net system-id command under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. B. Configure the network net-id command(s) under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. C. Configure the network net-id command(s) and the is-type level-1-2 command under router isis. D. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis. E. Configure the net system-id and the network net-id commands under router isis and enable IS-IS on each interface with the ip router isis command. Answer: C 105. Which BGP attribute is used by BGP to prevent routing loops? A. AS-path B. next-hop C. MED D. weight E. local preference F. origin Answer: B 106. When the BGP path selection process is being performed on a Cisco router, which BGP attribute is used first when determining the best path?

54 A. local preference B. MED C. weight D. origin E. next-hop F. AS-path Answer: D 107. Which three characteristics apply to IS-IS but not to OSPF? (Choose three.) A. encapsulates PDUs directly into a data-link frame B. uses a DIS and a backup DIS to present the pseudo-node on the LAN C. uses stubby areas to improve network scalability D. uses a default IOS metric of 10 on each interface E. runs PRC (Partial Route Calculations) to calculate IP reachability information F. uses an on-demand circuit to reduce the hello and LSA flooding across switched WAN links, such as ISDN Answer: ADE 108. Which BGP path attribute is Cisco proprietary? A. weight B. MED C. local preference D. origin E. next-hop F. AS-path Answer: A 109. Which show command will display only the Type 5 LSAs in the OSPF topology database? A. show ip route B. show ip route ospf

55 C. show ip ospf database summary D. show ip ospf database nssa-external E. show ip ospf database external Answer: B 110. A network administrator has enabled OSPF across an NBMA network and has issued the command ip ospf network nonbroadcast. Given those facts, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. DR and BDR elections will occur. B. DR and BDR elections will not occur. C. All routers must be configured in a fully meshed topology with all other routers. D. The neighbor command is required to build adjacencies. E. Interfaces will automatically detect and build adjacencies with neighbor routers. Answer: AE 111. Which three statements are correct about the differences in IS-IS and OSPF? (Choose three.) A. IS-IS LSP contains TLV fields and OSPF LSU contains the LSAs. B. New additions to the protocol are easily implemented in OSPF but not with IS-IS. C. For greater fine tuning there are more IS-IS timers. D. OSPF has more area types than does IS-IS. E. IS-IS is more CPU-intensive than is OSPF. Answer: ACE 112. Which enhancement was added to IGMP version 3? A. membership query message B. membership report message C. leave group message D. source filtering E. destination filtering Answer: B

56 113. Examine the router output above. Which two items are correct? (Choose two.) A. Router A will assume the active state if its priority is the highest. B. If Ethernet 0/2 goes down, the standby router will take over. C. When Ethernet 0/3 of RouterA comes back up, the priority will become 105. D. The local IP address of Router A is E. The local IP address of Router A is Answer: AB 114. Which configuration commands will enable RTA to advertise all local interfaces over OSPF? A. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# default-information originate B. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# network C. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# network D. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# network E. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# redistribute static F. RTA(config)# router ospf 1 RTA(config-router)# redistribute connected

57 Answer: A 115. Which attribute must exist in the BGP update packet? A. LOCAL_ PREF B. AGGREGATOR C. AS_Path D. Weight Answer: B 116. Which BGP attribute will not be advertised in routing updates to its neighboring routers? A. weight B. local preference C. origin D. AS_path E. next hop Answer: C 117. Observe the diagram. RTC is the hub router and RTA and RTB are the spokes. There are no virtual circuits between the spoke locations. What is needed to successfully route traffic to the /24 network from RTA? A. The neighbor next-hop-self command on RTA.

58 B. The neighbor next-hop-self command on RTB. C. The neighbor next-hop-self command on RTC. D. Nothing is required. This is the default behavior on this topology. Answer: D 118. Refer to the exhibit diagram and configuration. RTB is summarizing its networks from AS with the aggregate-address command. However, the show ip route command on RTA reveals the RTB individual networks as well as its summary route. Which option would ensure that only the summary route would appear in the routing table of RTA? A. Delete the four network statements and leave only the aggregate-address statement in the BGP configuration. B. Add the keyword summary-only to the aggregate-address command. C. Add a static route with a prefix of pointing to the null0 interface. D. Create a route map permitting only the summary address. Answer: D 119. Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured on router RTA to summarize all routes from area 0 to area 1?

59 A. area 0 range B. area 0 range C. area 1 range D. area 1 range E. summary-address F. summary-address Answer: D 120. Which VTP information does a Catalyst switch advertise on its trunk ports when using VTP? (Choose two.) A. VTP mode B. STP root status C. negotiation status D. management domain E. configuration revision number Answer: DB 121. What is the maximum Ethernet frame size on a trunk link configured using IEEE 802.1Q encapsulation? A Bytes B Bytes

60 C Bytes D Bytes E Bytes Answer: E 122. What are three kinds of OSPF areas? (Choose three.) A. stub B. active C. remote D. backbone E. ordinary or standard Answer: BDE 123. Which command displays the IBGP and EBGP neighbors that are configured? A. show ip bgp B. show ip bgp paths C. show ip bgp peers D. show ip bgp summary Answer: C 124. Which two provide intra-area routing services? (Choose two.) A. L1 IS B. L1 ES C. L2 IS D. L2 ES E. L1/L2 IS Answer: AB 125. The lack of which two prevents VTP information from propagating between switches? (Choose two.) A. VLAN 1

61 B. a trunk port C. VTP priority D. a root VTP server Answer: AD 126. The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router. Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem? A. Switch1(config)# line con0 Switch1(config-line)# password cisco Switch1(config-line)#login B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# ip address

62 C. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# duplex full Switch1(config-if)# speed 100 E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1 Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Answer: A 127. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch? A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports Answer: B 128. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have simultaneously been reloaded and the DR election has concluded as expected. What state is RTB in?

63 A. 2WAY/DROTHER B. 2WAY/BDR C. 2WAY/DR D. FULL/DROTHER E. FULL/BDR F. FULL/DR Answer: B 129. Refer to the exhibit. All routers have simultaneously been reloaded, and the DR election has concluded as expected. Which state is RTC in?

64 A. 2WAY/DROTHER B. 2WAY/BDR C. 2WAY/DR D. FULL/DROTHER E. FULL/BDR F. FULL/DR Answer: C 130. When an IPv6 enabled host boots, it sends a router solicitation (RS) message. An IPv6 router responds with a router advertisement (RA). Which two items are contained in the RA? (Choose two.) A. IPv6 address for the host B. lifetime of the prefix C. prefixes for the link D. keepalive timers

65 E. request for the local host IP address F. any route advertisements it has received Answer: BF 131. Which statement is true about EBGP? A. An internal routing protocol can be used to reach an EBGP neighbor. B. The next hop does not change when BGP updates are exchanged between EBGP neighbors. C. A static route can be used to form an adjacency between neighbors. D. EBGP requires a full mesh. Answer: A 132. Which two are characteristics of the IS-IS protocol but not OSPF? (Choose two.) A. provides for network scalability by allowing the network to be separated into areas B. provides routing support for multiple network layer protocols C. three layers of hierarchical routing D. utilizes SPF algorithm E. forms adjacencies with all neighbors F. supports demand circuit routing Answer: BC 133. Which three are benefits of IS-IS over OSPF? (Choose three.) A. supports more routers in an area B. does not require Hello packets to establish neighbor relationships C. produces fewer link state advertisements for a given network D. supports route tags E. supports network layer protocols other than IP F. requires fewer neighbor relationships in a broadcast multiaccess network Answer: ACD 134. Which two conditions can cause BGP neighbor establishment to fail? (Choose two.)

66 A. There is an access list blocking all TCP traffic between the two BGP neighbors. B. The IBGP neighbor is not directly connected. C. BGP synchronization is enabled in a transit autonomous system with fully-meshed IBGP neighbors. D. The BGP update interval is different between the two BGP neighbors. E. The BGP neighbor is referencing an incorrect autonomous system number in its neighbor statement. Answer: AB 135. Based on the show ip bgp summary output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The BGP session to the neighbor is established. B. The BGP session to the neighbor is established. C. The BGP session to the neighbor is established. D. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the neighbor. E. The BGP session to the neighbor is established, but the router has not received any BGP routing updates from the neighbor. F. The router is attempting to establish a BGP peering session with the neighbor. Answer: AB 136. Refer to the exhibit. By default, when RTB passes BGP advertisements from RTA about network to RTC, what address will be listed as the next-hop address?

67 A B C D Answer: A 137. OSPF is configured over a Frame Relay network as shown in the exhibit. All PVCs are active. However, R1 and R3 fail to see all OSPF routes in their routing tables. The show ip ospf neighbor command executed on R2 shows the state of the neighbors. What should be done to fix the problem? A. The ip ospf network non-broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface.

68 B. The ip ospf network broadcast command should be configured on each Frame Relay interface. C. The neighbor command should be configured under the OSPF routing process on all routers. D. The ip ospf priority value on the hub router should be set to 0. E. The ip ospf priority value on the spoke routers should be set to 0. Answer: B 138. Refer to the exhibit. A workstation PC is connected to the Cisco IP phone access port. Based on the configuration in the exhibit, how will the traffic be managed? A. The IP phone access port will override the priority of the frames received from the PC. B. The IP phone access port will trust the priority of the frames received from the PC. C. The switch port Fa0/4 will override the priority of the frames received from the PC. D. The switch port Fa0/4 will trust the priority for the frames received from the PC. Answer: D 139. Refer to the exhibit. A trunk link is connected between switch A_SW and switch D_SW. Based on the configuration shown in the exhibit, how would the traffic coming from the switch A_SW be managed?

69 A. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from the IP phone. B. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch A_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone. C. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames coming from port Fa0/1 on A_SW. D. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the A_SW switch port Fa0/4. E. The trunk port Fa0/1 on switch D_SW will trust all CoS values on the frames received on the IP phone port. Answer: A 140. Refer to the exhibit. Why does the trust state of interface FastEthernet 0/3 show "not trusted"?

70 A. DSCP map needs to be configured for VOIP. B. ToS has not been configured. C. ToS has been misconfigured. D. The command mls qos needs to be turned on in global configuration mode. E. There is not a Cisco Phone attached to the interface. Answer: A 141. Which three statements are true about the Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)? (Choose three.) A. IGMP is a multicast routing protocol that makes packet-forwarding decisions independent of other

71 routing protocols such as EIGRP. B. IGMP is used to register individual hosts with a multicast group. C. IGMP messages are IP datagrams with a protocol value of 2, destination address of , and a TTL value of 1. D. IGMP snooping runs on Layer 3 routers. E. IGMP version 3 enables a multicast receiving host to specify to the router which sources it should forward traffic from. F. There are three IGMP modes: dense mode, sparse mode, and sparse-dense mode. Answer: BCF 142. Which two statements are true about Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) snooping? (Choose two.) A. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) can be used simultaneously on a switch. B. IGMP snooping and Cisco Group Membership Protocol (CGMP) were developed to help Layer 3 switches make intelligent forwarding decisions on their own. C. IGMP snooping examines IGMP join/leave messages so that multicast traffic is forwarded only to hosts that sent an IGMP message toward the router. D. IGMP snooping is an IP multicast constraining mechanism for Layer 2 switches. E. IGMP snooping is enabled with the ip multicast-routing global configuration command. Answer: CE 143. Refer to the exhibit. What are two important facts in interpreting the output of the show ip pim interface command? (Choose two.) A. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on lowest IP address. B. Multiaccess segments elect a DR based on highest IP address.

72 C. Multiaccess, multicast segments do not elect a DR. D. The RP is only seen in version 2 of Sparse-Dense mode. E. Point-to-Point links do not display DR information. Answer: BD 144. Refer to the exhibit. The user who is connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1 is on VLAN 10 and cannot access network resources. On the basis of the information in the exhibit, which command sequence would correct the problem? A. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# no shut B. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access

73 C. SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 SW1(config-if)# switchport mode access SW1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 10 D. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# no shut E. SW1(config)# vlan 10 SW1(config-vlan)# state active Answer: B 145. Refer to the exhibit. Will redistributed RIP routes from OSPF Area 2 be allowed in Area 1? A. Because Area 1 is an NSSA, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed. B. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 5 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1. C. Because NSSA will discard type 7 LSAs, redistributed RIP routes will not be allowed in Area 1. D. Redistributed RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 because they will be changed into type 7 LSAs in Area 0 and passed on into Area 1. E. RIP routes will be allowed in Area 1 only if they are first redistributed into EIGRP. Answer: C 146. Which two statements are true of the OSPF link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.) A. Using the Bellman-Ford algorithm, each OSPF router independently calculates its best paths to all destinations in the network. B. Using the DUAL algorithm, each OSPF router independently calculates its best paths to all destinations in the network.

74 C. OSPF sends summaries of individual link-state entries every 30 minutes to ensure LSDB synchronization. D. OSPF sends triggered updates when a network change occurs. E. OSPF sends updates every 10 seconds. F. When a link changes state, the router that detected the change creates a link-state advertisement (LSA) and propagates it to all OSPF devices using the multicast address. Answer: CE 147. Which two statements are true about IBGP neighbor relationships? (Choose two.) A. An EGP or static routing is required between IBGP neighbors. B. A full-mesh IBGP requires that neighbor relationships be established between all BGP enabled routers in the autonomous system. C. IBGP neighbors must be in different autonomous systems. D. The BGP split-horizon rule specifies that routes learned via EBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers. E. The BGP split horizon rule specifies that routes learned via IBGP are never propagated to other IBGP peers. Answer: BD 148. Refer to the exhibit. Routers RTA and RTB are running BGP but the session is active. What command needs to be added to establish the BGP session?

75 A. ip route s0/0 ip route s0/1 B. network C. neighbor next-hop-self D. no synchronization Answer: D 149. Refer to the exhibit. Given the exhibited router output, which command sequence can be added to R1 to generate a default route into the OSPF domain?

76 A. default-router B. ip default-network C. default-information originate always D. ip default-gateway Answer: A 150. Which three statements are true about IP multicast configuration? (Choose three.) A. PIM sparse mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router. B. PIM dense mode interfaces are always added to the multicast routing table in a router. C. PIM sparse-dense mode acts as PIM dense mode if an RP is not known. D. PIM sparse-dense mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network. E. PIM sparse mode and PIM sparse-dense mode require an RP on the network. F. PIM sparse mode and PIM dense mode require an RP on the network. Answer: BCD 151. Refer to the exhibit. Switch P1S1 is not applying VLAN updates from switch P2S1. What are three reasons why this is not occurring? (Choose three.)

77 A. Switch P2S1 is in server mode. B. Switch P1S1 is in transparent mode. C. The MD5 digests do not match. D. The passwords do not match. E. The VTP domains are different. F. VTP trap generation is disabled on both switches. Answer: BDF 152. Which two statements about multicast addressing are true? (Choose two.) A. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 24 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0. B. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last

78 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0. C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 1. D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. E. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. F. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application. Answer: BF 153. Refer to the show interface Gi0/1 switchport command output shown in the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this interface? (Choose two.) A. This interface is a dot1q trunk passing all configured VLANs. B. This interface is configured for access mode. C. This interface is a member of VLAN1.

79 D. This interface is a member of VLAN7. E. This interface is a member of a voice VLAN. Answer: BC 154. Which three interface commands will configure the switch port to support a connected Cisco phone and to trust the CoS values received on the port if CDP discovers that a Cisco phone is attached? (Choose three.) A. mls qos trust override cos B. mls qos trust cos C. mls qos trust device cisco-phone D. switchport priority extend cos_value E. switchport voice vlan vlan-id Answer: ACE 155. Which two statements are true about recommended practices in VLAN design? (Choose two.) A. Routing should occur at the access layer if voice VLANs are utilized. Otherwise, routing should occur at the distribution layer. B. Routing should always be performed at the distribution layer. C. Routing should not be performed between VLANs located on separate switches. D. VLANs should be localized to a switch. E. VLANs should be localized to a single switch unless voice VLANs are being utilized. Answer: BE 156. Refer to the exhibit. What statement is true about the configuration on switch CAT1?

80 A. The configuration overrides 802.1p priorities on packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 48. B. The configuration establishes policed DSCP on ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with values ranging from 8 to 56. C. The configuration overrides the Quality of Service value in packets entering ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12 with a value of 45. D. Two IP phones with the MAC addresses of d1a7 and d2b7 are connected to CAT1 ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12, respectively. E. Security violation shutdown mode has been activated for ports Fa0/11 and Fa0/12.

81 F. Untagged Port VLAN ID (PVID) frames will carry voice traffic on VLAN 40. Answer: A 157. Refer to the exhibit. Both host stations are part of the same subnet but are in different VLANs. On the basis of the information presented in the exhibit, which statement is true about an attempt to ping from host to host? A. A trunk port will need to be configured on the link between Sw_A and Sw_B for the ping command to be successful. B. The two different hosts will need to be in the same VLAN in order for the ping command to be successful. C. A Layer 3 device is needed for the ping command to be successful. D. The ping command will be successful without any further configuration changes. Answer: C 158. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct output of the command show ip route on router R2?

82 A. R2# show ip route

83 <output omitted> /8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L /32 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 i L /32 [115/30] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 i L /24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 B. R2# show ip route <output omitted> /8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L /32 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 i L /32 [115/30] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/1 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 C. R2# show ip route <output omitted> /8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L /32 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 i L /32 [115/30] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/1 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 D. R2# show ip route <output omitted> /8 is variably subnetted, 7 subnets, 3 masks i L /32 [115/20] via , Serial1/0

84 i L /32 [115/30] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i su /23 [115/10] via , Null0 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 i L /23 [115/20] via , Serial1/1 E. R2# show ip route <output omitted> /8 is variably subnetted, 6 subnets, 2 masks i L /32 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 i L /32 [115/30] via , Serial1/0 [115/30] via , Serial1/1 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/0 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/0 i L /24 [115/20] via , Serial1/1 C /24 is directly connected, Serial1/1 Answer: A 159. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network. However, router R1 does not receive a default route to router R2 as intended. Which configuration change would ensure that R1 would receive a default route from R2?

85 A. Add the area 1 stub command on routers R1. B. Add the always keyword to the default-information originate configuration command on router R2. C. Remove the default information originate configuration command from router R2 and place it on router R1. D. Add the ip route command to router R2. Answer: D 160. Which IPv6 address correctly compresses the IPv6 unicast address 2001:0:0:0:0DB8:0:0:417A? A. 2001:0DB8:417A B. 2001::0DB8::417A C. 2001:::0DB8::417A D. 2001:0DB8:0:0:417A E. 2001::DB8:0:0:417A F. 2001:::0DB8:0:0:417A Answer: A

86 161. Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have established a neighbor relationship and are exchanging routing information. The network design requires that R1 receive routing updates from R2, but not advertise any routes to R2. Which configuration command sequence will successfully accomplish this task? A. R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0 B. R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# passive-interface serial 0 C. R1(config)# access-list 20 deny any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0 D. R2(config)# access-list 20 deny any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 out serial 0 E. R1(config)# access-list 20 permit any R1(config)# router eigrp 1 R1(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0 F. R2(config)# access-list 20 permit any R2(config)# router eigrp 1 R2(config-router)# distribute-list 20 in serial 0 Answer: E

87 162. Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.) A. In the IS-IS routing domain, routers may have adjacencies with other routers on multipoint links. B. IS-IS metrics are based on delay, bandwidth, reliability, load, and MTU. C. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the areas that the routers are connected to. D. Level 2 routers are equivalent to ABRs in OSPF and learn about paths both within and between areas. E. Level 1 and Level 2 routing is a function of ES-IS. Answer: AB 163. Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM dense mode. Recipient A and Recipient B are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true? A. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 4 and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. B. The Multicast Server is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. C. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. D. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once

88 pruning has taken place. E. Switch 1 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. F. Switch 3 is the root of the multicast tree. Switches 1,3,4, and 5 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. Answer: A 164. Refer to the exhibit. All multilayer switches are running PIM sparse mode. Host B and Host F are sending IGMPv2 join messages to their respective multilayer switches. Which statement is true? A. The multicast server is the rendezvous point of the multicast tree. B. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. C. Switches 2 and 6 will participate in the multicast tree once pruning has taken place. D. Switches 1, 2, 3, and 6 will participate in the multicast tree. E. Switch 1 is the rendezvous of the multicast tree. Answer: B 165. A router is running BGP and receives more than one route for a particular prefix. Assume all the routes for this prefix have the same attributes. Which three path features would be reasons be for the router to

89 ignore some of the routes and not consider them as candidates for the best path? (Choose three.) A. paths that are marked as synchronized in the show ip bgp output B. paths that are marked as not synchronized in the show ip bgp output C. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is accessible D. paths for which the NEXT_HOP is inaccessible E. paths from an external BGP (ebgp) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH F. paths from an internal BGP (ibgp) neighbor if the local autonomous system (AS) appears in the AS_PATH Answer: BDF 166. Refer to the exhibit. Autonomous systems 200 and 300 have EBGP sessions established with their directly connected routers in autonomous system 100. IGP has been configured on all routers in autonomous system 100 and they successfully exchange routing updates. Traffic originated in autonomous system 200 cannot reach the destination autonomous system 300. What configuration should be done on the routers in autonomous system 100 in order for the traffic coming from autonomous system 200 to be forwarded to autonomous system 300? A. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned

90 on. B. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 and R3, and the synchronization must be turned off. C. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned on. D. IBGP session must be established between routers R1 R2 and R2 R3, and the synchronization must be turned off. E. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned on. F. IBGP speakers within autonomous 100 must be fully meshed, and the synchronization must be turned off. Answer: D 167. Which three route filtering statements are true? (Choose three.) A. After the router rip and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any RIP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface. B. After the router eigrp 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any EIGRP updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface. C. After the router ospf 10 and passive-interface s0/0 commands have been issued, the s0/0 interface will not send any OSPF updates, but will receive routing updates on that interface. D. When you use the passive-interface command with RIPv2, multicasts are sent out the specified interface. E. When you use the passive-interface command with EIGRP, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface. F. When you use the passive-interface command with OSPF, hello messages are not sent out the specified interface. Answer: AEF 168. Which two statements about the IS-IS routing protocol are true? (Choose two.) A. IS-IS is capable of supporting IPv4 and IPv6.

91 B. IS-IS is only capable of supporting IPv4 and CLNS. C. IS-IS routers use ES-IS hellos (ESH) to establish and to maintain neighbor relationships. D. IS-IS routers run the Bellman-Ford algorithm against their LSDBs to pick the best paths. E. Level 1 routers learn about paths within the area of which they are a part. F. Level 2 routers learn about paths both within areas and between areas. Answer: AB 169. Refer to the exhibit. OSPF has been configured on all routers in the network and Area 1 has been configured as a NSSA. Which statement is true about the NSSA Area 1? A. Redistributed RIP and IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 5 LSAs. B. Only redistributed RIP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs. C. Only redistributed IGRP routes will appear in Area 1. They will be advertised via type 7 LSAs. D. No redistributed routes can appear in Area 1, only summary routes. Answer: D 170. Which two statements are true about the rendezvous point (RP) in a multicast network? (Choose two.) A. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast dense mode (PIM DM). B. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse mode (PIM SM). C. An RP is required only in networks running Protocol Independent Multicast sparse-dense mode (PIM-SDM).

92 D. The multicast sources must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree. E. The multicast receivers must register with the RP to form the multicast distribution tree. F. To form the multicast distribution tree, the multicast sources register with and the receivers join the RP. Answer: BC 171. Refer to the exhibit. IP multicast for group address has been enabled on all routers in the network. Hosts on Network A receive the multicast traffic. However, hosts on Network B do not. On the basis of outputs provided, what could be the cause of the problem? A. Router R2 does not have an RP configured on the multicast network. B. Router R2 does not see the upstream router R1 as a PIM neighbor. C. Because of RPF failure, Router R2 does not forward multicast packets to Network B. D. The multicast packets are sourced from a server with an unspecified IP address.

93 Answer: A 172. What is the IPv6 address FF02::2 used for? A. all hosts in a local segment B. all routers in a local segment C. all hosts in a particular multicast group D. all routers in an autonomous system Answer: C 173. Refer to the exhibit. Which command will create a default route on Router B to reach all networks beyond router A? A. ip route B. ip route C. ip route s0/0/0 D. ip route s0/0/0 E. ip route Answer: B 174. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that the hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links? (Choose two.)

94 A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F Answer: C F 175. An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will accomplish this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router? A. permit ip any any deny tcp eq 80 B. permit ip any any deny tcp eq 80

95 C. deny tcp eq 80 permit ip any any D. deny tcp eq 80 permit ip any any Answer: B 176. Refer to the exhibit. Router A has interfaces with addresses and Router B, which is connected to router A over a serial link, has interfaces with address and Which sequence of commands will configure RIPv2 on router B?

96 Answer: B 177. Lab configuration Answer:

97 DLSwtich#conf t DLSwtich(config)#vtp domain CISCO DLSwtich(config)#vtp mode server DLSwtich(config)#ip routing DLSwtich(config)#vlan 20 DLSwtich(config-vlan)#exit DLSwtich(config)#vlan 21 DLSwtich(config-vlan)#exit DLSwtich(config)#int vlan 20 DLSwtich(config-if)#ip address DLSwtich(config-if)#no shutdown DLSwtich(config-if)#exit DLSwtich(config)#int vlan 21 DLSwtich(config-if)#ip address DLSwtich(config-if)#no shutdown DLSwtich(config-if)#end DLSwtich#copy run start ALSwitch#conf t ALSwtich(config)#vtp domain CISCO ALSwtich(config)#vtp mode client ALSwtich(config)#exit ALSwtich#copy run start 178. Lab configuration Answer: ASW1#conf t ASW1(config)#aaa new-model ASW1(config)#radius-server host key rad123 ASW1(config)#aaa authentication dot1x default group radius ASW1(config)#dot1x system-auth-control

98 ASW1(config)#int f0/1 ASW1(config-if)#switchport mode access ASW1(config-if)#switchport access vlan 20 ASW1(config-if)#dot1x port-control auto ASW1(config-if)#no shutdown ASW1(config-if)#end ASW1#copy run start DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#ip access-list standard 10 DSW1(config-std-nacl)#permit DSW1(config-std-nacl)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#match ip address 10 DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan access-map PASS 20 DSW1(config-access-map)#action drop DSW1(config-access-map)#exit DSW1(config)#vlan filter PASS vlan-list 20 DSW1(config)#exit DSW1#copy run start 179. Lab configuration Answer: R2#conf t R2(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R2(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link R2(config-router)#end R2#copy run start R3#conf t

99 R3(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R3(config-router)#area 11 virtual-link R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start R4#conf t R4(config)#ipv6 router ospf 1 R4(config-router)#no area 54 virtual-link R4(config-router)#end R4#copy run start 180. Lab configuration Answer: DSW1#conf t DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 20 priority DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 40 priority 4096 DSW1(config)#int g1/0/5 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 40 port-priority 64 DSW1(config-if)#switchport trunk allow vlan 40 DSW1(config-if)#no shutdown DSW1(config-if)#exit DSW1(config)#int g1/0/6 DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree vlan 30 port-priority 64 DSW1(config-if)#no shutdown DSW1(config-if)#end DSW1#copy run start 181. Lab configuration Answer:

100 R3#sh run R3#conf t R3(config)#router eigrp 123 R3(config-router)#no eigrp stub receive-only R3(config-router)#eigrp stub R3(config-router)#end R3#copy run start R4#conf t R4(config)#int S0/0 R4(config-if)#ip summary-address eigrp R4(config-if)#no shutdown R4(config-if)#end R4#copy run start R4#sh ip route 182. Lab configuration Answer: Blockade# Blockade#conf t Blockade(config)#router isis Blockade(config-router)#redistribute eigrp 100 level-1 metric 50 Blockade(config-router)#exit Blockade(config)#router eigrp 100 Blockade(config-router)#redistribute isis level-1 metric Blockade(config-router)#end Blockade#copy run start

101 183. Drag the port states to their correct description. Answer: 184. Place the BGP attributes in the correct order used for determining a route Answer: 185. Drag the appropriate IS-IS routing term to its correct definition Answer:

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