NS0-158 netapp. Number: NS0-158 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min.

Transcription

1 NS0-158 netapp Number: NS0-158 Passing Score: 800 Time Limit: 120 min

2 Exam A QUESTION 1 What are three causes of a storage failover partial giveback? (Choose three.) A. iscsi sessions are active. B. AutoSupports are being generated. C. NFSv3 mounts are active. D. CIFS sessions are active. E. SnapMirrors are running. Correct Answer: BDE When a giveback occurs, the storage will be once again homed to the owning node of the disks. However, this process can be vetoed in certain conditions, such as: AutoSupports are being generated CIFS sessions are active SnapMirrors are running Storage issues occur (such as failed disks) References: QUESTION 2 Click the Exhibit button.

3 The size of the aggr1 RAID group shown in the exhibit is 8. What is the RAID type? A. RAID-TEC B. RAID-DP C. RAID4 D. RAID0 Correct Answer: B RAID 6 extends RAID 5 by adding another parity block; thus, it uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. Figure: Diagram of a RAID 6 setup, which is identical to RAID 5 other than the addition of a second parity block

4 Incorrect Answers: D: RAID0 does not use parity, References: QUESTION 3 Which CLI command is used to move epsilon to a new node? A. cluster modify B. cluster identity modify C.cluster setup D.storage failover takeover Correct Answer: A Reassigning epsilon to another node in the cluster. Only one node in the cluster can hold epsilon. Epsilon gives the holding node an extra fractional voting weight in the quorum. Steps 1. If you are currently at the admin privilege level, set the privilege level to advanced by using the set command with the -privilege parameter. 2. Remove epsilon from the node that holds it currently by using the cluster modify command with the -epsilon parameter set to false for the node. You can use the cluster show command with the -epsilon parameter to identify the node that holds epsilon currently. 3. Assign epsilon to another node by using the cluster modify command with the -epsilon parameter set to true for the node. References:

5 QUESTION 4 You just finished upgrading a cluster to ONTAP 9.1 and would like to enable NetApp Volume Encryption (NVE) on an existing volume. You do not have NetApp Storage Encryption (NSE) drives installed. Which three steps would you take to accomplish this task? (Choose three.) A. Replace drives with NSE drives. B. Modify the volume options with the encrypt true parameter. C. Install the NVE license. D. Execute the key manager setup wizard. E. Perform volume move operation using the encrypt-destination true parameter. Correct Answer: CDE You must install the NVE license and enable onboard key management before you can enable volume encryption. You can enable encryption on a new volume or on an existing volume. You can use the volume move start command to enable encryption on an existing volume. You can use the same aggregate or a different aggregate. References: QUESTION 5 You have a cluster of FAS controllers with HDD aggregates. The data is being compressed into 32 KB blocks before being written to a volume. In this scenario, which type of compression is being used? A. secondary, inline compression B. adaptive, inline compression C. adaptive, postprocess compression D. secondary, postprocess compression Correct Answer: A NetApp data compression reduces the physical capacity required to store data on storage systems by compressing data within a flexible volume (FlexVol volume)

6 on primary, secondary, and archive storage. It compresses regular files, virtual local disks, and LUNs. When NetApp data compression is configured for inline operation, data is compressed in memory before it is written to disk. Incorrect Answers: C, D: Postprocess compression can compress both recently written data and data that existed on disk prior to enabling compression. References: QUESTION 6 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, the write operations would be compacted into how many WAFL blocks? A. 4 B. 2 C. 3 D. 5 Correct Answer: C 4k is the block size that WAFL uses to write on each disk. From the exhibit: KB equals 9.8 KB, which would fit in 3 WAFL blocks. References: QUESTION 7 Which command prompt is displayed when a cluster named cl1 is in Advanced privilege mode? A. cl1::> B. cl1::*> C. cl1-01> D.SP cl1-01>

7 Correct Answer: B The following example sets the privilege level to advanced and then to admin: vs1::> set -privilege advanced Warning: These advanced commands are potentially dangerous; use them only when directed to do so by technical support. Do you wish to continue? (y or n): y vs1::*> set -privilege admin References: QUESTION 8 Click the Exhibit button. The maximum RAID group size of the RAID-DP aggr1 shown in the exhibit is 18. You expand the aggregate by 20 disks. How many of the new disks are used for data? A. 20

8 B. 16 C. 14 D. 18 Correct Answer: C RAID 6 extends RAID 5 by adding another parity block; thus, it uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks. Figure: Diagram of a RAID 6 setup, which is identical to RAID 5 other than the addition of a second parity block Incorrect Answers: D: RAID0 does not use parity, References: QUESTION 9 Click the Exhibit button.

9 Which two data protection deployment configurations shown in the exhibit are supported? (Choose two.) A. configuration D B. configuration C C. configuration A D. configuration B Correct Answer: AC You can use SnapVault to protect a volume SnapMirror destination. You can perform SnapVault transfers from the volume SnapMirror destination when you want to retain the data for a longer period. References: QUESTION 10 Click the Exhibit button.

10 On the first LUN entry shown in the exhibit, a hyphen (-) appears under reporting-nodes. What are two reasons why the hyphen appears? (Choose two.) A. The hyphen indicates that no nodes are reporting paths to the LUN. B. The hyphen indicates that all nodes are reporting paths to the LUN. C. The hyphen is the default for SLM on LUNs create in ONTAP 8.3 and later. D. The hyphen is the default for SLM on LUNs create before ONTAP 8.3. Correct Answer: BC Verify that the LUN map contains four nodes by using the lun mapping show -fields reporting-nodes command. Example cluster1::> lun mapping show -vserver SVM1 -volume vol1 -fields reporting-nodes vserver path igroup reporting-nodes SVM1 /vol/vol1 ig1 cluster1-1,cluster1-2,cluster1-3,cluster1-4 If the cluster contains only four nodes and all four are included as reporting-nodes, the reporting-nodes field displays a dash (-). References: QUESTION 11 You have a SnapLock Compliance volume that needs to be replicated to a different cluster at a disaster recovery site.

11 Which two statements concerning the SnapMirror destination volume are true? (Choose two.) A. The destination volume type must be SnapLock Enterprise. B. The destination volume type must be SnapLock Compliance. C. The destination cluster does not require a SnapLock license. D. The destination cluster requires a SnapLock license. Correct Answer: BD B: To create an end-to-end relationship between SnapLock Compliance volumes by using SnapMirror, you need to create both the source and the destination volumes as SnapLock Compliance volumes and then initialize the mirroring relationship by using the snapmirror initialize command. The other commands you use differ depending on whether you are creating a volume SnapMirror relationship for a traditional volume or a FlexVol volume. D: A SnapLock license entitles you to use both SnapLock Compliance mode and SnapLock Enterprise mode. SnapLock licenses are issued on a per-node basis. You must install a license for each node that hosts a SnapLock aggregate. References: QUESTION 12 What are three volume-level storage efficiency features of ONTAP? (Choose three.) A. deswizzle B. space reclamation C. compaction D. compression E. deduplication Correct Answer: ADE DE: NetApp deduplication is an integral part of the NetApp Data ONTAP operating environment and the WAFL file system, which manages all data on NetApp storage systems. NetApp data compression, introduced in Data ONTAP 8.0.1, is highly complementary to deduplication.

12 A: Data within a FlexVol has both a logical location within the volume and a physical location within the containing aggregate. When reading data from a FlexVol, the physical location of that data must be known to perform the read. Under normal circumstances, reads use a fast-path to translate a logical address into a physical address. When SnapMirror transfers a FlexVol to a different aggregate, however, the relationship between logical and physical addresses is changed. The destination aggregate lays out the volume into different physical blocks. Immediately after the SnapMirror transfer, reads to the destination volume will use a different process to translate logical addresses into physical addresses. This slow-path is less efficient and may require an additional disk read to access a block of data. As soon as a FlexVol SnapMirror update finishes, the destination storage controller will launch a scanner to recreate the fast-path metadata. Once the scan finishes, reads to the SnapMirror destination will use the normal fast-path. This process is known as deswizzling. References: QUESTION 13 You create a FlexVol volume to host files for a Windows-based application. The administrator of the application is a Windows user. The application does not support files access by Linux users. Which security style should you assign to the volume? A. mixed B. unified C. NTFS D. UNIX Correct Answer: C You can manage NTFS file security and audit policies on Vservers with FlexVol volumes by using the CLI. This removes the need to use a remote client to manage file security. References: QUESTION 14 Click the Exhibit button.

13 An administrator installed UTA2 PCIe cards into an existing FAS8200 HA pair. The new cards will be used for native FC traffic. The administrator wants to configure the UTA2 ports for FC client access. Referring to the exhibit, which two actions address the requirement? (Choose two.) A. Use the network fcp adapter modify command to bring the adapter online. B. Reboot the node to bring the adapter online after final configuration. C. Use the system hardware unified-connect command to verify that the port mode is set to initiator. D. Use the ucadmin modify command to set the adapter mode to FC. Correct Answer: BD B: Ports must be converted in pairs, for example, 0c and 0d, after which, a reboot is required, and the ports must be brought back to the up state. D: CNA ports can be configured into native Fibre Channel (FC) mode or CNA mode. If the current configuration does not match the desired use (here we want to change from CNA mode to FC mode), enter the following commands to change the configuration as needed: system node hardware unified-connect modify -node node_name -adapter adapter_name -mode fc cna -type target initiator -mode is the personality type, fc or 10GbE cna. -type is the FC4 type, target or initiator. References: QUESTION 15 You have a read-only volume that needs protection within the cluster, but you do not have a SnapMirror license. Which mirror type would you use to protect the volume? A. DP B. LS

14 C. TDP D. XDP Correct Answer: B A load-sharing mirror reduces the network traffic to a FlexVol volume by providing additional read-only access to clients. You can create and manage load-sharing mirrors to distribute read-only traffic away from a FlexVol volume. References: QUESTION 16 An administrator enabled the iscsi protocol on an SVM and created a LUN for a Windows 2016 system. After rescan, the LUN is not visible on the host. Which two steps must the administrator take to solve this problem? (Choose two.) A. Create an initiator group (igroup), add the WWPN of the host initiator, and then map the igroup to the LUN. B. Disable the ALUA support from the host for the LUN. C. Configure the iscsi service on the Windows 2016 system. D. Create an initiator group (igroup), add the iscsi IQN, and map the igroup to the LUN. Correct Answer: CD D: An iscsi qualified name (IQN) identifier is a worldwide unique name that each iscsi initiator and iscsi target must have. The IQN for an iscsi initiator is available in Microsoft iscsi Software Initiator or other iscsi initiators. Typically the IQN is used by the iscsi target to identify the iscsi initiator. Incorrect Answers: A: A World Wide Port Name, WWPN, or WWpN, is a World Wide Name assigned to a port in a Fibre Channel fabric. Used on storage area networks, it performs a function equivalent to the MAC address in Ethernet protocol, as it is supposed to be a unique identifier in the network. B: Asymmetric Logical Unit Access (ALUA), also known as Target Port Groups Support (TPGS), is a set of SCSI concepts and commands that define path prioritization for SCSI devices. References: QUESTION 17

15 Click the Exhibit button. After logging into an SVM using the vsadmin user account, you are able to see existing volumes, but are unable to create new volumes. Referring to the configuration shown in the exhibit, what is the problem? A. The vsadmin user is not assigned the correct application access. B. No aggregates have been assigned to the SVM. C. Aggregate SAS_01 is out of space.

16 D. The vsadmin role does not have the create volumes privilege. Correct Answer: D QUESTION 18 Click the exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, you have a FlexGroup volume that is 250 TB with 10 constituents. You apply the volume modify vserver fg1_vs volume fg1 size 350TB command. What affect does the command have on the FlexGroup volume and its constituents? A. It grows the FlexGroup volume to 600 TB by adding 14 new constituents. B. It grows the FlexGroup volume to 350 TB by adding four new constituents C. It grows the FlexGroup volume to 350 TB by increasing the size of each constituent to 35 TB. D. It grows the FlexGroup volume to 600 TB by increasing the size of each constituent to 60 TB. Correct Answer: C If you want to add more space, you can increase the FlexGroup volume collective size.

17 Increasing the size of the FlexGroup volume resizes the existing constituents of the FlexGroup. If you want to increase the capacity by resizing the existing constituents then use the command: volume modify -vserver vserver_name -volume fg_name -size new_size References: QUESTION 19 A customer has a 1,000 GB volume used as a NAS share that has 3x 100 GB files and has no existing Snapshot copies. The customer creates a Snapshot copy of the volume, adds a 500 Gb file to the volume, and then deletes one of the 100 GB files from the volume. How much free space is in the volume in this scenario? A. 500 GB B. 200 GB C. 300 GB D. 600 GB Correct Answer: B Snapshot copies minimize disk consumption by preserving individual blocks rather than whole files. Snapshot copies begin to consume extra space only when files in the active file system are changed or deleted. When this happens, the original file blocks are still preserved as part of one or more Snapshot copies.

18 References: QUESTION 20 Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iscsi LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.) A. broadcast domains B. MPIO C. failover groups D. ALUA Correct Answer: BD

19 Microsoft Multipath I/O (MPIO) is a Microsoft-provided framework that allows storage providers to develop multipath solutions that contain the hardware-specific information needed to optimize connectivity with their storage arrays. These modules are called device-specific modules (DSMs). The concepts around DSMs are discussed later in this document. MPIO is protocol-independent and can be used with Fibre Channel, Internet SCSI (iscsi), and Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interfaces in Windows Server. Asymmetric Logical Unit Access (ALUA), also known as Target Port Groups Support (TPGS), is a set of SCSI concepts and commands that define path prioritization for SCSI devices. References: QUESTION 21 Click the Exhibit button. You manage a multi-tenant NetApp storage system. You start configuring an SVM for a new customer and receive the error shown in the exhibit when you attempt to create a LIF. You verify that the IP address is correct and that the customer LIF does not already exist. However, you see that another customer is using the same IP address in their SVM. How would you correct this problem? A. Create a new VLAN for the new customer. B. Create the LIF with a different IP address. C. Create an IPspace for the new customer. D. Create a broadcast domain for the new customer. Correct Answer: C The IPspace feature enables a single storage system to be accessed by clients from more than one disconnected network, even if those clients are using the same IP address.

20 References: QUESTION 22 NetApp ONTAP uses Snapshot copies for which two features? (Choose two.) A. cluster peering B. FlexClones C. FlexArray FLI D. SMTape Correct Answer: BD You can create FlexClone files and FlexClone LUNs from an existing Snapshot copy of the parent files and parent LUNs contained in a FlexVol volume. SMTape is a high performance disaster recovery solution from Data ONTAP that backs up blocks of data to tape. It is a Snapshot copy-based backup to tape feature. References: QUESTION 23 Click the Exhibit button.

21 While reviewing the port health shown in the exhibit, you notice that port e0c on node1 is degraded. What would cause this problem? A. The port is not plugged into a switch. B. The port is in the wrong broadcast domain. C. The port does not have an IP address. D. The port has been flapping. Correct Answer: B L2 reachability health monitor: Monitors whether all ports configured in the same broadcast domain have L2 reachability to each other. This health monitor reports L2 reachability issues in all IPspaces; however, it marks only the ports in the cluster IPspace as degraded. Incorrect Answers: D: Link flapping is monitored by a separate health monitor. References: QUESTION 24 An administrator is designing an ONTAP solution that consists of eight FAS8200 nodes in a single cluster. Each node will use four ports for cluster connections. Which cluster interconnect switch model should be used in this scenario? A. Nexus 5596UP B. Nexus 5010 C. CN1610 D. CN1601 Correct Answer: A The following cluster switches are supported: NetApp CN1610, Cisco Nexus 5596UP and 5596T. The cluster switches use the following Inter-Switch Link (ISL) ports:

22 Cisco Nexus 5596UP and 5596T: ports 41 through 48 NetApp CN1610: ports 13 through 16 References: QUESTION 25 Click the Exhibit button. Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.) A. A default tree quota is set on volume svm1_data1. B. An explicit quota is set on qtree1, and a derived quota is set on qtree2. C. A derived quota is set on qtree1, and an explicit quota is set on qtree2. D. A default user quota is set on volume svm1_data1. Correct Answer: BD A quota enforced as a result of a default quota, rather than an explicit quota (a quota with a specific target), is referred to as a derived quota. To see derived quotas, you can generate a quota report. In the report, a derived user or group quota is indicated by a Quota Specifier that is either blank or an asterisk (*).A derived tree

23 quota, however, has a Quota Specifier; to identify a derived tree quota, you must look for a default tree quota on the volume with the same limits. Since they are not manually configured quota rules, derived quotas do not appear in the output of the quota policy rule show command. References: QUESTION 26 What is a characteristic of a single-node cluster? A. It only hosts a single SVM. B. It does not have a node management LIF. C. It does not have any cluster interconnect LIFs. D. It is unsupported in a production environment. Correct Answer: C Incorrect Answers: A, B: The following table lists the recommended number of SVMs in a cluster based on the number of LIFs configured: D: A single node cluster is a special implementation of a cluster running on a standalone node. You can deploy a single node cluster if your workload only requires a single node, but does not need nondisruptive operations. References: QUESTION 27 A storage administrator wants to recover a file from a snapshot. The rest of the data in this volume should be preserved. In this scenario, which command would you use?

24 A. volume snapshot compute-reclaimable B. volume snapshot restore C.volume snapshot rename D.volume snapshot restore-file Correct Answer: D The volume snapshot restore-file command enables you to restore a single file to a version saved in the Snapshot copy. References: QUESTION 28 Users report that they are unable to connect to home directories stored on a NetApp cluster. You are using Active Directory-based Kerberos authentication. Which two actions would correct the problem? (Choose two.) A. Verify that the CIFS server in running in the SVM. B. Verify that the Network Time Protocol service is in sync. C. Verify that an Active Directory domain admin account is configured in ONTAP. D. Verify that domain tunneling is configured in ONTAP. Correct Answer: AC Kerberized NFS in Cluster-Mode for use with Active Directory Pre-requisites include: Domain admin access to a domain controller (for initial setup). vserver with data LIFs, NFS and CIFS servers created

25 Note: The CIFS server is not required for basic NFS Kerberos access, but is required for multiprotocol access or when using AD as an LDAP server for name mappings. References: QUESTION 29 At which level of granularity would you back up data to tape using the SMTape command? A. directory B. qtree C. volume D. aggregate Correct Answer: C You can use SMTape to perform volume backups to tapes. References: QUESTION 30 You are configuring an ONTAP solution for FC host connectivity. In this scenario, how should the cluster be configured? (Choose two.) A. The SVM must be configured for Ethernet LIFs. B. FC ports must be configured as initiators. C. FCP must be licensed on the cluster. D. FC ports must be configured as targets. Correct Answer: AC You can configure the FC and the FCoE protocols on the SVM for SAN hosts. LIFs are created on the most suitable adapters and assigned to port sets to ensure data path redundancy. Based on your requirements, you can configure either FC, FCoE, or both the protocols.

26 Before you begin The FCP license must be enabled on the cluster. All the nodes in the cluster must be healthy. Each node must have at least two correctly configured ports for each protocol (FC and FCoE). Incorrect Answers: B, D: Onboard ports can be individually configured as either target or initiator FC ports References: QUESTION 31 When a two-node cluster is expanded, which cluster configuration would be supported? A. a 4-node switched cluster B. a 4-node switchless cluster C. a 3-node switched cluster D. a 3-node switchless cluster Correct Answer: C If you are adding nodes to a two-node switchless cluster, you must have installed and configured the cluster management and interconnect switches before adding additional nodes. The switchless cluster functionality is supported only in a two-node cluster. References: QUESTION 32 Click the exhibit button.

27 In reference to the NFS export-policy rules shown in the exhibit, NFS clients mounted to /data1 from the /24, /24 and /24 subnets are able to mount /data1 and read files but are unable to edit files or write new files. All other subnets require read-only access to /data1. What must you do to allow write access to the three subnets while allowing read-only access to all other subnets in this scenario? A. Set the index of ruleindex 2 to ruleindex 4. B. Set the index of ruleindex 1 to ruleindex 4. C. Set the index of ruleindex 3 to ruleindex 4. D. Set the index of ruleindex 4 to ruleindex 1. Correct Answer: B Make sure the rule with ruleindex 1 is applies last. Note: You can use the vserver export-policy rule setindex command to manually set an existing export rule's index number. This enables you to rearrange the order in which Data ONTAP processes export rules. If a client makes an access request that is not permitted by the applicable export policy, the request fails with a permission-denied message. If a client does not match any rule in the export policy, then access is denied. If an export policy is empty, then all accesses are implicitly denied. References:

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