Exam : Title : Routing and Switching SE/FE Exam (RSS/FE) Ver :

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1 Exam : Title : Routing and Switching SE/FE Exam (RSS/FE) Ver :

2 Total Questions # 83. Missing answers of Q# 52,53. Missing explanations and answers will be provided in next update. QUESTION 1. You are configuring a VLAN interface on an internal route processor. You defined the VLAN interface. What should you do next? A. define the network number B. define the default gateway C. assign IP routing to the interface D. assign a unique IP address to the interface QUESTION 2. You *********- route command to configure a default route on which platform? A. Catalyst 2900 B. Catalyst 3500XL C. Catalyst ******** D. Catalyst ******** Answer: C QUESTION 3. You have a Catalyst 5000 switch with a large *** network. Broadcasts are consuming too much bandwidth. You want to create VLANs and need inter VLAN communication. Which hardware accomplishes **? A. MLS B. RSM C. MSFC D. VLAN interswitch QUESTION 4. Which device allows communication between VLANs? A. IP translator B. route processor C. switching engine D. VLAN interswitch

3 QUESTION 5. A VLAN, implemented in switching equipment, corresponds to which concept in legacy network equipment? A. VTP domain B. LAN segment C. routed network D. ISL trunk interface E. spanning ***** QUESTION 6. Which statements are true above VLANs? (Choose two.) A. **** have connected members located anywhere in the switched network. B. VLANs improve network segmentation by determining the next network point to which a frame should be forwarded. C. VLANs allow a Layer 1 protocol to determine intelligently the best path to a destination when multiple paths exist. D. VLANs solve the scalability problems found in large, flat networks by dividing the network into smaller broadcast domains or subnets. Answer: AD QUESTION 7. How many VLANs can s single RSM support? A. 1 B. 16 C. 256 D Answer: C QUESTION 8. Which command configures a ***- gateway on a Catalyst 3500XL switch? A. Switch(config) ip route ip address B. Switch(config) set ip route address C. Switch(config) ip route-default-gateway ip address D. Switch(enable) set default-gateway ip address

4 QUESTION 9. What is a reason for aerating VLANs on switches? A. to simply management B. to simple configuration C. to enhance Layer 2 functionality D. to create smaller broadcast domains QUESTION 10. Which command defines a VLAN on an RSM in a **** switch A. vlan vlan-number B. RSM vlan vlan-number on C. Set vlan vlan-number on D. Interface vlan vlan-number QUESTION 11. Which router command is used to reverse telnet to a modem locally connected to line 8? A. telnet B. telnet C. telnet D. telnet QUESTION 12. You have a large flat network that is experiencing congestion. You want to create VLANs with smaller subnet ***** Layer 2 switch to increase performance. You only router is equipped with 10BaseT Ethernet ports. How can you accomplish the assigned task? A. use separate physical links from the router to the switch for each VLAN B. move each new subnet to a separate router interface and route all traffic C. enable ISL trunking on the router and pass all VLAN traffic on a single link D. enable 802.1Q trunking on the router to pass all VLAN traffic on a single link Answer: A

5 QUESTION 13. What is a VLAN? A. a routed internetwork B. a single broadcast domain C. a group of switch ports that communicate through an RSM D. a group of switch ports that are member of the same multicast group QUESTION 14. When building an IP multicast domain using PIM which mode assumes that other routers do not want to *** multi *** packets for the group? A. PIM-DM B. PIM-SM C. PIM-RP D. CGMP E. IGMP snooping QUESTION 15. Which command line should you use to ****** a port as a trunk port on a Catalyst 3500XL switch? A. Switch(config)#vtp mode B. Switch(config)#set trunk C. Switch(config)#encapsulate D. Switch(config)#switchport *********- QUESTION 16. Catalyst switches support which two methods of assigning members to VLANS? (Choose two.) A. static VLANs B. dynamic VLANs C. automatic VLANs D. host-based VLANs E. source-based VLANs Answer: AB

6 QUESTION 17. Which DTP switchport mode parameter sets the switch port actively send and respond ********** frames? A. access B. trunk C. no negotiate D. dynamic desirable E. dynamic auto QUESTION 18. Which command removes certain VLANs from an existing trunk***? A. set vlan B. clear vtp C. clear port D. clear trunk QUESTION 19. Which statement about static VLANs is true? A. Devices use DHCP to request their VLAN. B. Attached devices are unaware of any VLANs. C. Devices are assigned to VLANs based on their MAC address D. Devices are in the same VLAN regardless of which **** *** QUESTION 20. The telecommunications sector is now highly competitive. New carriers are. A. using cable to complete with DSL B. creating applications and reporting capabilities to compete with ******** C. using wireless to provide speed and are creating new application they belling will satisfy under demand D. creating enhanced services to compete with incumbents, and new ***** creating infrastructure so they do not need to outsource to existing operators QUESTION 21. What are three valid combinations of trunk modes for ports configured a link

7 parameter (Choose three.) A. On/On B. On/Auto C. Auto/Auto D. Desirable/Auto E. Nonegotiate/Desirable Answer: ABD QUESTION 22. What are the three default port settings in a **** (Choose two.) A. Each switch port is assigned to a **** VLAN. B. Dynamic VLANs require *** Membership Policy Server. C. Devices are in the same VLAN **** of which port they attach to. D. Dynamic VLAN assign*** are more through the command line interface. Answer: ADE QUESTION 23. Network Services provide hardware-based data compression and ********in the Cisco 7500 series and is done in the. A. VIM B. SSP C. services adapters D. route switch processor Answer: C QUESTION 24. Which trunking mode prevents DISL or DTP frames from being sent out of a trunk links A. On B. Auto C. Desirable D. Nonegotiate QUESTION 25. Which two statements about dynamic VLAN are true? (Choose two.) A. Each switch port is assigned to a **** VLAN.

8 B. Dynamic VLANs require *** Membership Policy Server. C. Devices are in the same VLAN ***less of which port they attach to. D. Dynamic VLAN **** are more through the command line interface. C QUESTION 26. What is the purpose of the Auto ***************** CRWS tools? A. to detect the encapsulation of the line and other PPPoE, PPPoA, or bridged B. to detect if the connection is ***** able ***** and to set up the router appropriately C. to detect if there is a connection, if there a connection to acquire the DHCP information from the carrier D. to detect if there is a connection and there is a connection to acquire the DHCP information from the carrier and the import that information to the DHCP server ***- inside network. Answer: A QUESTION 27. You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in ISL mode between two Cisco switches. Which two are *** at *** end of the link for the trunk to operate correctly? (Choose two.) A. an identical VTP mode B. an identical speed/duplex C. an identical trunk negotiation parameter D. an identical trunk encapsulation parameter D QUESTION 28. Which command creates a VLAN on a Catalyst 5500 series switch? A. set vlan mode mdoe B. set vlan vlan*** C. set trunk *** D. set *** ** ** [port number] QUESTION 29. Which command is used to specify protocols *********** for incoming asynchronous dial-up connections?

9 A. modem inout B. async-group in C. access-group async D. transport input QUESTION 30. You must configure an Ethernet trunk to operate in 802.1Q mode between two Cisco switches. What can cause the trunk to operate incorrectly? A. an identical duplex at each end of the link B. an identical speed at each end of the link C. a different native VLAN parameter at each end of the link D. a compatible trunking mode shared by the ports connecting the link at either end Answer: C QUESTION 31. When do you modify a VLAN name on a switch? (Choose two.) A. when the VTP mode on the switch is client B. when the VTP mode on the switch is server C. when the VTP mode on the switch is transparent D. when the VTP mode on the switch is pass-through Answer: C QUESTION 32. Which functions enable load sharing through NAT? (Choose two.) A. ********** distribution B. map the protocol ports that will be used C. create DNS entries for the inside addresses D. map an outside address to a group of inside addresses E. configure each server with the group of inside addresses Answer: AD QUESTION 33. You must ********* Ethernet trunk between two Cisco switches. Which three statements about the trunk link are true? (Choose three.) A. The link ****** 00 mbps or faster B. The link ********* and be point-to-point.

10 C. The link may use the 802.1Q trunk protocol and be point-to-point. D. The link may use the trunk protocol, providing the SAID parameter is correctly set. Answer: QUESTION 34. Which prerequisite must be met on a Cisco switch prior to configuring VLANs? A. an RSM must be present. B. IP routing must be enabled. C. A VTP domain must be configured. D. The switch must be equipped with an MSFC. Answer: C QUESTION 35. What is the purpose of the dialer-list command when configuring a router to initiate a dial-on-demand routing ISDN can A. It defines call destination parameters. B. It defines what constitutes interesting traffic. C. It provides for optional call parameters. D. It assign a dialer-group to an interface. QUESTION 36. You are configuring a VLAN trunk *** Fast Ethernet. Which trunking mode enables the port to become a trunk if the link partner requests it? A. Auto B. Negotiate C. Designate D. Nonegotiate Answer: A QUESTION 37. What is the next step after configuring a static VLAN? A. define switch-port speed B. enable IP routing for inter VLAN routing C. assign switch-ports to the newly defined VLAN D. configure VTP domain for transparent VTP mode

11 Answer: C QUESTION 38. From the figure, which frame-relay map command would configure a static address mapping formwork central *** to the branch site? A. frame-relay map ip broadcast ietf B. frame-relay map ip broadcast cisco C. frame-relay map ip broadcast cisco D. frame-relay map ip broadcast ietf QUESTION 39. How do you specify the trunking encapsulation ****** for port on a Catalyst 3500XL switch? A. Switch(config)#vtp mode B. Switch(config-if)#set trunk C. Switch(config-if)# encapsulation D. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation QUESTION 40. How do VLANs solve the scalability problems found in large, flat networks? (Choose three.) A. by limiting CDP frames B. by limiting BPDU frames C. by providing routing functionality D. by limiting the flooding of multicast frames E. by limiting the flooding of broadcast frames DE QUESTION 41. From the figure, which command would enable to central router do dynamically ***** the rate at which it sends packets to the branch site over the Frame Relay network? A. frame-relay traffic-rate adaptive B. frame-relay adaptive-shaping fecn C. frame-relay adaptive-shaping been D. frame-relay traffic-rate dynamic

12 Answer: C QUESTION 42. Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when ************ as the congestion avoidance mechanism on the router? A. RSVP B. WRED C. CAR D. CBWFQ QUESTION 43. What are two methods of stopping VLAN broadcasts from flooding *** that do NOT need these broadcast frames? (Choose two) A. enabling VLAN authentication B. enabling VTP pruning on the switch C. removing VLANs with the clear trunk command D. removing VLANs with the clear VTP NVRAM command C QUESTION 44. Which command will change the specified Frame Relay encapsulation for specific PVC on an interface? A. no frame-relay encapsulation ietf B. no frame-relay encapsulation cisco C. encapsulation frame-relay ietf D. frame-relay map ip broadcast ietf QUESTION 45. Which technology manages multicast traffic at Layer 2 by configuring Layer 2 ***** interfaces dynamically to forward multicast traffic only to those interfaces that want to receive it? A. IGMP B. IGMP snooping C. PIM-DM D. DVMRP E. MOSPF

13 QUESTION 46. Which two statements about VLANS and broadcast *** true? (Choose two.) A. Fewer network devices reduce broadcast traffic B. Multicast packets are always broadcast in VLANs C. BPDU frames are not propagated when ***** VLANs D. Broadcasts are dropped at the router interface for each logical network. Answer: AD QUESTION 47. Which command is used to specify protocols *********** for incoming asynchronous dial-up connections? A. modem inout B. async-group in C. access-group async D. transport input QUESTION 48. Some Cisco Supervisor Engines have modular unlink ports so that a module can be selected to provide an appropriate level of bandwidth. Which two features CK valid on a 2-port 1000Base SX or 1000Base LX modular uplink ****** (Choose two.) A. 10/100 Auto sensing B. Fast EtherChannel C. ISL D Q/p E. 1.3 rewrite Answer: CD QUESTION 49. Bridging LANs helps to ******* a CSMA/CD environment by reducing the size of the collision domain. However, it fails to address which problem? A. excessive CRC errors B. media-type mismatches C. flooding of BPDU frame D. excessive broadcast frame

14 QUESTION 50. Which three of the following routing IOS commands defines "interesting" traffic for only one host using dial on demand routing (DDR)? (Choose three.) A. RTA (config) #dialer-list 1 ip permit B. RTA (config) #access-list ip permit *** C. RTA (config) #dialer-group D. RTA (config) #dialer-group E. RTA (config) #dialer-list 1 protocol ip list 2 F. RTA (config) # dialer-list 2 protocol ip permit CE QUESTION 51. Which two statements apply to a Cisco Catalyst switch with dual supervisor cards? (Choose two.) A. The supervisor engines must be the same model. B. Te active supervisor is selected by priority. C. The active supervisor controls the system bus. D. The relevant protocols are active on the standby supervisor. E. The supervisor engines perform load sharing. Answer: AC QUESTION 52. What is the effect of the *** numbered Ethernet 0/0 command when issued in configuration mode for an asynchronous interface? A. It uses the address the specified interface as the source address. B. The async*** interface obtains and IP address for the Ethernet interface. C. All traffic ***** *** obtains an IP address for the Ethernet interface. D. All ****** traffic received on the asynchronous interface is forwarded to the Ethernet interface. E. There is no *** cause you cannot configure the Ethernet interface while configuring an asynchronous interface. Answer: QUESTION 53. Which command ****** used in order for PPP authentication to work with a dialer profile?

15 A. dialer B. dialer ****** C. dialer *** member D. ************ Answer: QUESTION 54. What are two ****** related standards specifically designed for data transmission over fiber optic networks? (Choose two.) A. FDDI B. SONET C. ATM D. DSL E. ATM C QUESTION 55. **** autoselect feature of a Cisco access server allow? A. the **** of IP packets for routing B. a configured process to start automatically C. serial interfaces to sense incoming modem calls D. users to reselect which protocol they want to use QUESTION 56. Which router command will display the number of BECN and FECN packet statistics for an interface? A. show interfaces B. show frame-relay pvc C. show frame-relay map D. show frame-relay Imi QUESTION 57. Which technology allows ******** provider to support overlapping customer VLAN Ids over transparent LAN services? A q tunneling B. ATM

16 C. SDH D. IP+Optical Answer: A QUESTION 58. What are four PPP options that are negotiated using LCP? (Choose four.) A. callback B. multilink C. accounting D. compression E. authorization F. authentication G. rate adaptation Answer: ABDF QUESTION 59. Which protocol uses UDP to exchange information between the client and server? A. TACACS+ B. RADIUS C. AAA D. LCP QUESTION 60. What is a VLAN? A. a routed internetwork B. a single broadcast domain C. a group of switch ports that communicate through an RSM D. a group of switch ports that are member of the same multicast group QUESTION 61. In which two instances do you need to configure the encapsulation PPP command on the physical interface (BRI PRI, async)? (Choose two) A. when the physical interface default is SLIP B. when you are using rotary groups for outgoing calls C. when you are using dialer pools and expect incoming calls D. when you are configuring directly on the physical interface, and it needs to

17 run *** Answer: CD QUESTION 62. What is the default action of authentication when AAA is enabled but authentication is not set? A. Allow a user to access all resources after login. B. Disallow a user from access to all resources after login. C. Record all access of resources and who long the user accessed each resources. D. Not to record any access of resources the users accessed after login. E. Allow any user to login without checking the authentication database. F. Disallow any user from logging in with or without a valid username and password QUESTION 63. Which Quality of Service technology classifies traffic ********* based on dynamically observed traffic flows? A. FIFQ B. WFQ C. Custom Queuing D. Priority Queuing QUESTION 64. Which three statements are true about CHAP and PAP? (Choose three.) A. PAP sends passwords in clear text. B. PAP is vulnerable to playback (packet replay). C. Routers always try CHAP before they try PAP. D. PAP requires less processing and bandwidth than CHAP. E. CHAP can use TACACS+ and RADIUS security servers. PAP **** use RADIUS servers. F. CHAP uses a fixed value for each connection which is used *** time ***** occurs on a particular connection. Answer: ABD QUESTION 65. Which switch command enables a trucking protocol that appends four ********* packet?

18 A. Switch (config-if)#switchport rank encapsulation dot Iq B. Switch (config-if)#switchport rank encapsulation itef C. Switch (config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation fddi D. Switch (config-if)#switchport rank encapsulation isl QUESTION 66. What protocol specified by RFC 1256 will allow an enabled IP host find a *** router when a router becomes unavailable? A. IRDP B. SNMP C. HSRP D. VRRP Answer: A QUESTION 67. The dialer callback-secure command makes it so. A. all dial back calls will use data encryption B. only calls configured for call back can connect C. only CHAP authenticated calls can connect through ***** D. only calls authenticated through a secure server ***** TACACS+) can connect through dial back QUESTION 68. Which of the following technologies uses a Root Link ******? A. BackboneFast B. PortFast C. UplinkFast D. STP standard Answer: A QUESTION 69. What Cisco switch command will map VALNS 10 to 29 MST instance 1? A. Switch(config)#vlan instance1 B. Switch(config-mst)#vlan instance 1 C. Switch(config)#instance 1 vlan 10-20

19 D. Switch(config-mst)#instance 1 vlan QUESTION 70. Which is the advantage of running CHAP ****** AP? A. It can authenticate ISDN dial** B. It can send hashed passwords. C. It can use a remote security server. D. It can use a local security database. QUESTION 71. Which of the following are valid frame ********* controller? (Choose two.) A. b8zs B. sf C. hdb3 D. esf E. ami D QUESTION 72. What command will specify IEEE 802.1Q as the encapsulation method for trunk port on a Cisco IOS switch? A. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation dot 1q B. Switch(config-if)#switchport trunk encapsulation is1 C. Switch(config-if)#switchport encapsulation dot 1q D. Switch(config)#switchport 0/1 trunk encapsulation is1 Answer: A QUESTION 73. What is the best descript **** the command ppp authentication pap when configured on both the calling and called router? A. one-way authentication B. two-way authentication C. one-way encrypted authentication D. two-way encrypted authentication

20 QUESTION 74. Which process plays a ********* the creation of the CEF adjacency table? A. Address Resolution Protocol RRP B. PDU header rewrite C. NetFlow switching D. Hello packet exchange Answer: A QUESTION 75. Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls? A. show dialer B. show interface C. show isdn q 931 D. show isdn active call Answer: A QUESTION 76. Multilink PPP can improve throughput and reduce latency by using which two features? (Choose two.) A. adding 8 kbps to each B channel for 16 kbps in-band management B. load balancing based on an XOR of the Layer 2 addresses in the packets C. bandwidth aggregation by splitting packets and sending the fragments over parallel circuits. D. Initializing the second B channel when the first B channel reaches a specified bandwidth utilization Answer: CD QUESTION 77. What would incoming command set on a router? router (*********group-async 1 router (config)# 17 A. assign synchronous interfaces 1 through 7 to a signal master interface B. assign *** privileges to interface async 1 through 7 C. ********* asynchronous interfaces 1 through 7 D. ****** virtual TTY interfaces 1 through 7 E. trunks asynchronous interfaces to increase modem bandwidth F. creates a modem pool on interfaces 1 through 7

21 Answer: A QUESTION 78. Which IOS command specifies the point at which additional B channels are added to the Multilink *** A. bandwidth B. ppp multilink C. demand threshold D. dialer load-threshold QUESTION 79. Which statements about Multilink PPP are true? (Chose two.) A. MLP ******* with ISDN. B. MLP *** packets and sends fragments over multiple links. C. **** *** because MLP does not support sequencing. D. **** round-robin algorithm to send unfragmented individual packets across multiple lines. Answer: AB QUESTION 80. Which two statements are true about Multilink PPP? (Choose two.) A. It uses packets sequences and load calculation. B. It has multi-vendor interoperability, as specified by RFC C. It implements an indexing system that predicts character sequences. D. It compresses the 20 byte IP header to a 2 ro 4 byte header to reduce overhead. Answer: AB QUESTION 81. Which statements are true about the data-link connection identifier (DLCI)? (Choose two.) A. DLCI numbers need to be identical on all DTE devices. B. DLCI numbers have local significance. C. DLCI is assigned by Network Administrator. D. DLCI is assigned by the Frame Relay service provider. D

22 QUESTION 82. You need to flexibility to ********** around in a large enterprise. You also need to spend a little as possible as you grow, but which router make the most economic sense for this type of growth? A. Cisco 7200 B. Cisco 7300 C. Cisco 7400 D. Cisco 7500 Answer: C QUESTION 83. Which implementation of SPAN is designed ****** source ports, source VLANs, and destination ports across different switches? A. RVSPAN B. MSPAN C. VSPAN D. RSPAN

3. What could you use if you wanted to reduce unnecessary broadcast, multicast, and flooded unicast packets?

3. What could you use if you wanted to reduce unnecessary broadcast, multicast, and flooded unicast packets? Nguyen The Nhat - Take Exam Exam questions Time remaining: 00: 00: 51 1. Which command will give the user TECH privileged-mode access after authentication with the server? username name privilege level